now U.S.
2006-09-19 19:11:35 · 15 answers · asked by jgmcs 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Immigration
Gabe S. you get an A, that is why Mexico still today has many white people and States where the majority of the people are primarily caucasian.
2006-09-19 19:17:52 · update #1
You need to be really smart to understand my additional posts alright?
2006-09-19 19:18:46 · update #2
I know a small majority did, and not a majority like in Mexico because Mexico became a Mestizo Country while the U.S remained Caucasian.
2006-09-19 19:23:12 · update #3
The Spanish must of been some horny assz invaders huh?
2006-09-19 19:23:35 · update #4
Really hate to break this to you, but they did.
2006-09-19 19:18:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
The Spanish got there first. The English settled America's east coast. We eventually met during westward expansion. By then we were more than just English. We were everybody.
"Give us your poor, your tired, your downtrodden".
The Spanish went into South America and took over. They killed the opposition and tried to convert the natives to Catholisism and bred with them to implant their bloodline, thus ensuring a foothold in the New World.
The English came over first as explorers and later sent their unwanted over as punishment. To work and make product for the King. The first English settlers had enough problems with England. They didn't need to make trouble with the natives too. They needed all the friends they could get.
2006-09-20 02:43:11 · answer #2 · answered by dudezoid 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
They did in the first place and then you had the civil wars and Independence form England.
Then you went out to claim every thing the Indians had that was the start of your racism that you carry on today.
Even now you want what others have.
If they do not give it your governments find some feeble excuse to bomb them.
You will never learn.
2006-09-20 02:25:00 · answer #3 · answered by aiddogs5 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The English did inbreed it just wasn't as common.The Aztecs must have been some charismatic people because when the Mexicans Migrated upwards to (now US territory) They really didn't inbreed with those Indians. They killed and enslaved them. Good Question as to why?
2006-09-20 07:28:09 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The English colonists brought women with them; the Spanish did not.
2006-09-20 02:54:38 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You have allowed yourself to become so completely illiterate that your "question" is unintelligible!! DO YOU even understand what you asked??!! Try if you can to recall the second grade, and utilize a dictionary and some books on English grammar!!
2006-09-20 02:19:33 · answer #6 · answered by Rebooted 5 · 4⤊ 0⤋
You flatter yourself AND you are misinformed. The English did breed with the Indians in the Northeast..
2006-09-20 02:19:42 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋
the English did mix with the Indians. i have native blood in my veins. oh gee then i should be yelling this is my land because i have Indian blood in me. i have More rights. well I'm not. god put me here to live, until it's over. this land is a loaner until he take's it back. the italian's should be claiming this land. christopher columbis discovered americas. he named america after his cousin, americas.
2006-09-20 02:21:07 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Are you kidding? My cousin is a quarter Blackfoot, and there are any number of mixed lineage Native American and European Americans. We just don't make a big deal about it, because we have bigger accomplishments, more recently.
2006-09-20 02:40:17 · answer #9 · answered by DAR 7 · 2⤊ 1⤋
True and quick answer: because English are more racist than Spanish.
2006-09-22 14:02:26 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋