It condemns pretty much every other method of getting one's rocks off. Homosexuality and beastiality are abominations; there's a comandment against adultery, and pre-marital sex is punishable by public stoning. Even going solo is liable to get you struck down for spilling your seed. The only thing that won't incur immediate wrath from on high is sex with your spouse, in the missionary position, for the express purpose of reproduction. And even that is a sin, because of the lustful thoughts you must have had.
So how come there's no divine mandate against sex with little kids?
Is it because
A) it was lost in translation
B) after listing all the other sins, there was no room left
C) God doesn't mind child molesters, as long as they aren't gay and don't use contraception.
And this is the book we should all get our morals from?
2006-09-19 18:33:15 · 26 answers · asked by abram.kelly 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
OK, I get it now, they didn't NEED to mention that pedophilia is a sin because it is so blatantly obvious, right?
So how come it specifically declares that having sex with animals is an abomination? You don't think that was a little obvious? You think the ancient Israelites were the sort of people who knew better than to abuse children, but find themselves thinking, "Golly, some of those goats look pretty sexy, do you think God would mind if I..." ?!
2006-09-19 18:42:56 · update #1
HA HA. Good point...maybe it's just another reason for people not to take the Bible so seriously and literally and interpet it a little more intelligently.
2006-09-19 18:38:35 · answer #1 · answered by Reject187 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Pre-marital sex wasn't forbidden by God's word. God forbade adultery (sex w/ another's spouse) and coveting (lusting after someone)--which were pretty big taboos of the time. Jesus even didn't even make mention of it. Why is simple: Biblical mentions of pre-marital sex are the expressed opinions of the book's authors--and they were only mirroring the social more of the time.
Why is simple: girls as early as 12 and 13 were allowed marriage and to bear children; most such marital unions were pre-arranged too. Therefore, women who freely enjoyed sex outside a marital union were socially scorned as whores;which didn't hurt the "working girls" who needed some way to earn money even during Biblical times.
And yes: public morals trials were held in those days and "crimes" so shocking that they couldn't even be mentioned were simply called "acts of abomination"; assuming such inculded pedophillia, and the accused was stoned till dead---WITHOUT the benefit of a fair hearing or trial.
God nor Jesus ever spoke against homosexuality. Again: the Biblical book authors spoke out against it for it was the widely accepted social opinion of the time, often called "debauchery"...and fabled in the story of Sodom and Gemorrah.
2006-09-19 18:51:33 · answer #2 · answered by Mr. Wizard 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
The answer is definitely "C"
Most of the world's sick-*** child molesters can be found regularly attending some kind of christian church. Statistics don't lie.
The bible encourages sex with children (a lot of the concubines mentioned were very very young), also the brutal sacrifice and senseless slaughter of innocent animals was very popular with followers of the supposedly loving father above. Heck one could pratically follow the israelites on their exodus through the desert just by following the massive trail of dead bodies of their enemies they left behind them. And at some point during this exodus "god" gives them ten commandments. One of which says "Thou shalt not kill" Whats the difference?
All the time i spent as a christian i was extremely confused about everything in life.
2006-09-19 18:53:38 · answer #3 · answered by Shadowstorm 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
To answer your question, first of all God says in the Bible that between a husband and wife that " the bed is not defiled". Which means sex between a husband and wife are for their pleasure and procreation and are blessed by God. Finally, your questions about pedophilia makes you sound like a fool. You are trying to justify sinful behavior with other sinful behavior. Maybe God would hope people would actually have some sort of decency, which seems to be something you lack!
2006-09-19 18:57:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Usually , I view the question and decide whether it's worthwhile to reply. Only after I posted my reply do I read the others. I was gonna bypass your question. But after reading all those answers and some are denigrading you, i felt compelled to reply. So here's my two cents' worth. Mind you, this is done with proper research.
You do have a valid question;and hope it's sincere. It was the archaic way of thinking that sex between a married couple should be solely for reproduction. So, the saying goes, if you want to play, you must pay. St. Paul says it is wrong for a man to go with a prostitute because he becomes one body with her. (1Cor6:16) That depth of unity can only be truthful in marriage. Jesus teaches the permanence of marriage for the same reason. (Mark10:1-2) Paul includes adulterers and practicing homosexuals among those who will not inherit the kingdom of heaven.(1Cor6:10Although in the verse, he does indicate that they can be forgiven if they repent.
In the case of pedophilia, the 4th commandment
is involved. (Thou shalt honor thy father and thy mother.A peophile is inevitably deceiving the child's parent and causing him to do something behind their back. St. Paul talks about the 4th commandment (Ef 6:1) The Bible presupposes that children are under their parent's authority until the day they marry.(not turn 18 like in our culture).
There is no direct mention;in the Bible, but that doesn't mean we can not deal with timeless principles. One concept fornication;from Hebrew, the Old Testament, and Greek, the New Testament. The word in Scripture refers to any illicit sexual activity;therefore would include abhorrent acts of a pedophile. This includes the gathering and trading of graphic sexual pictures of young children. People who involve themselfves in this type of activity usually graduate from looking to actual actions that bring harm to children.
Fornication is something that is present on the lists of the lusts of the flesh(Galatians 5:16-21)and also on the list of evil things that come out of the heart of men apart from God (Mark7:21-23)Pedophiles are people who fall under the characteristics of one with out natural affection(Romans 1:31:2 2 Timothy 3:2) This is inhuman, unloving, and unsociable against social norms.,clearly describing the pedophile.
In addition, there is a principle that can be taken from Jesus words about children. Jesus used a child to teach His disciples that a childlike faith is what is necessary for entrance into the kingdom of heaven and that the Father has love for all his little ones. (Matthew18: 1-14)
The Bible was written and rewritten and translated several times over;sometimes, somewhere the original meaning for which it was written become lost. So we have to be careful not to take the literal or perhaps, the figurative meaning. I hope that answers your questions succintly.
2006-09-19 20:44:24 · answer #5 · answered by rosieC 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No sex without marriage - that should cover the little kid thing, don't you think?! If your innate sense of decency doesn't.
No, sex with a spouse is not subject to just reproduction, nor is there any mandate on position.....what book are you looking at?
If you really are interested and want to ask, then most of us are glad to answer, but you need to have the correct information before you start insulting Christians.
2006-09-19 18:39:22 · answer #6 · answered by chris 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
It does, in effect - when Jesus told the crowd to let the little chldren come to him (it's translated as 'suffer the children ... and in this context 'suffer' means 'allow' or permit') and then he goes on to say that anyone who harms the least of these, it would be better that a millstone be tied around his neck and be cast into the sea.
So, nothing specific about pedophilia but a remarkably strong condemnation against hurting children in any way.
2006-09-19 18:38:53 · answer #7 · answered by mrsgavanrossem 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
You forgot :
D) people weren't that sick back then as to have sex with little kids.
It didn't happen, it is a sick perverted thing from human minds that has started happening after the times when the Bible was written. You have to remember the Bible is Gods words, Gods story, He, as the Holy Ghost inspired HUMANS to write the Bible. Things that are in the Bible did happen, but pedifilia did not happen back then.
2006-09-19 18:43:59 · answer #8 · answered by creeklops 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Matthew 18:6 But whoso shall offend one of these little ones which believe in me, it were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and [that] he were drowned in the depth of the sea.
Luke 17:2 It were better for him that a millstone were hanged about his neck, and he cast into the sea, than that he should offend one of these little ones.
Sounds to me like it does condmen harming or "offending" children, and to say they should drown with a millstone around their neck seems to be a pretty frank way of saying what lay ahead of them would not be pleasent.
Before you bash the bible friend.... read it :)
God bless you:)
2006-09-19 18:41:45 · answer #9 · answered by PreacherTim63(SFECU) 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Jesus spoke very strongly about harming ANY child. He said that it would be better for someone to tie a millstone around their neck and jump into the sea, then it would be to hurt a child.
In other words, God will be VERY vengefull to you if you hurt a kid.
2006-09-19 18:36:02 · answer #10 · answered by Dysthymia 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋