The Greek doesn't have it in there once......They add to the Bible and that is forbidden. They can check it out........I just wish they would get out of the organization and follow the bible not the organization.....God will get the glory
2006-09-19
08:21:16
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11 answers
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asked by
eternalsouljaandson
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in
Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
The word God is in the Bible......spelled theos.. in greek.....Jehovah is nowhere in the New Testement.....The word for Lord is Kurious and is give to the king almighty Jesus....The Old testement in many bibles do not use the YHWH the name of God (also Jesus name who is God) and they should add it but the point of conversation is in the NEW TESTEMENT THE JWS ADD IT IN COVERING UP AND CLOUDING MY SAVIOUR JESUS AND WILL BE RESPONSIBLE FOR IT>>>EVERY JW THAT INFILTRATED OTHERS
2006-09-19
08:29:26 ·
update #1
TEE M is sacred to have people contact him.......I do use the name of God JEHOVAH JESUS Jehovah is Jesus Try reading REvelation 1......who is coming in the Clouds?....the first and the last who is Jehovah in Isaiah 44.....
2006-09-19
08:42:43 ·
update #2
why does tee say Jesus and Paul used the name YHWH......what is his proof other them mear speculation
2006-09-19
08:43:27 ·
update #3
Jeremy I hope you see this your anwser has stated that Jesus is Jehovah when you quited Romans 10:9 because verse 11 alludes to the Old testment joel 2: so i AM Glad you see that......
2006-09-19
09:31:51 ·
update #4
It was (and is) the sincere educated opinion of the New World Translation committee that the original manuscripts (those written by the hand of the original human writers) must have contained the divine name. There is some independent evidence that this is so, but at this time this assertion seems unlikely to be archaelogically confirmed in the near future.
Even so, the translators believe that it is preferable to err (if that is what they do) on the side of magnifying the divine name, rather than share in perpetuating a superstition that hides it.
Incidentally, the NWT is careful to only use the name "Jehovah" in the Christian Greek Scriptures (the so-called "New Testament") when the Greek verse seems to quote from a Hebrew Scripture that actually DOES contain the divine name. Thus, in the NWT, the Hebrew Scriptures use the divine name nearly 7000 times, while the NWT Greek Scriptures use the divine name only about 300 times (less than 5% as often).
(John 17:26) [Jesus said] I have made your name known to them and will make it known, in order that the love with which you loved me may be in them
Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/library/na/index.htm
http://watchtower.org/library/g/2004/1/22/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/library/jt/index.htm
2006-09-19 10:37:18
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answer #1
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answered by achtung_heiss 7
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That is the same thing I've wondered so many times. I studied with JW's for a time and have been using the New World Translation ever since (not exclusively, but quite a bit.) . I really like it, except for this one thing. Everytime I read Jehovah in the New Testament, I'm reminded that it shouldn't be there. Just like when I read LORD in the Old Testament in my King James, I'm reminded that it actually said YHWH.
Achtung says that the translators changed it because of their sincere educated opinion . But isn't that where the problem started? Jewish copyists valued their opinions about what SHOULD be written, more than they valued what actually WAS written. If they had stuck to copying what was actually in the manuscripts, they wouldn't have substituted Lord for YHWH and we wouldn't be here talking about it, thousands of years later.
I think it's ironic that the Jews and early Christians were of the opinion that it was more respectful to translate 'lord' and Jehovah's Witnesses are of the opinion that it's more respectful to translate 'Jehovah", when the most respectful thing to do in the first place would be to just be true to the manuscript you're translating. Both of them were erring on the side of what they considered to be 'magnifying' God's name, but their opinions as to how to magnify it were exactly opposite of each other. They could just copy what was written, and not err at all.
Anyway, I think it's a shame that the NWT decided to put Jehovah in the New Testament, because it causes a lot of people to just disregard the whole translation and it actually in many ways is a good translation, in my opinion.
2006-09-20 15:08:41
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answer #2
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answered by browneyedgirl 3
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I'm glad to see one who asked a question actually read an answer.
When I had my name open for email, all I got was verbal abuse, not scriptural reasonings.
Who said Jesus used God's name?
Jesus did at John 17:6 & 26, Matt 6:9
Paul at Rom. 10:13, according to my NKJV.
Try reading Rev. 1:1, God gave to Jesus, Jesus gave to the Angel, the Angel gave to John.
John is not the Angel, the Angel is not Jesus, Jesus is not God.
Rev 1:6 'he (Jesus) made us to be priest to his God and Father. (Notice Jesus' God and Father)
vs 7: (talking about Jesus)
vs 8: God Almighty is talking, not Jesus, Refer to vs. 1 God gave to Jesus the Revelation.
For scholarly notes refer to Jeremy Callahan's comments.
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Romans was written to Gentiles, who did not know Jehovah. This is the beauty of the NWT, It helps people come to know both Jehovah, and Jesus, whereas LORD and Lord, causes confusion.
Paul was not calling Jesus Jehovah by quoting Joel 2. He was teaching that to call upon Jehovah, you have to do so in the name of Jesus.
ORIGINAL COMMENTS
I guess for the same reason my NKJV has "LORD" (Jehovah) in the NT. Now granted that the NKJV doesn't have as many times as the NWT but they did it.
In my Large print reference NWT, Almost every place the name of Jehovah appears in the NT there is a reference to another bible, that is older than the NWT, so Jehovah's Witnesses weren't the first to place God's name in that location.
Prior to the Dead Sea Scrolls and other discoveries everyone was saying the OT bible Jesus & Paul used did not contain Jehovah's name in the Greek. Today we know it did.
God honoring people as Jesus and Paul would have used God's name, a better question is why don't you?
2006-09-19 15:38:20
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answer #3
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answered by TeeM 7
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You are correct that YHWH does not appear in any of the original Greek language manuscripts of the New Testament.
Obviously the NWT substitutes Jehovah for both theos and kurios to strenghthen their teaching that only people who proclaim the personal name of God, are acceptable to him.
TeeM's reference to other Bibles that translate theos and kurios is somewhat misleading. First of all, most, if not all, of those translations are into Hebrew so the 'name' that is added to those scriptures is not 'Jehovah' , but those four blocky letters called the Hebrew Tetragrammaton. Those translators deviated from the Greek by adding the Tetragrammaton where it didn't belong. And they disagree among themselves as to which particular Scriptures they translate in that way. Since YHWH doesn't appear in any of the verses in the New Testament, they simply change the Scriptures at will.
Certainly the fact that other translators have tampered with the Scriptures and deviated from the original language manuscripts is not a justifiable defense for anyone else knowingly doing the same.
I'm sure the translators of the NWT would not consider copying some of the other errors that previous translators have made, such as translating the word "Easter" in Acts 12:4, just to name one example.
The Divine Name does appear as YH, the shortened form of YHWH, in Revelation, and most, if not all, Bibles translate it as "Hallelujah", not as lord or god. The New World Translation, of course, translates it as Praise Jah.
2006-09-19 16:39:00
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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Well, I see your point, but there is precedence for this. The King James Bible replaces YHWH, with either LORD, or GOD in all caps throughout the Old Testament. "the LORD" is by far the most common substitution. I know why the KJV did it, but why it continues in most modern translations is beyond me.
2006-09-19 15:25:57
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answer #5
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answered by Nick â? 5
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YHWH is the name of the Hebrew God , thus Your God If you are a Christian . You can even find it in some old churches on the walls or carved in stone , and certainly in some old Bible translations.
So what's the deal?!
aaaargh.. you kill us with the spelling!
Cut it out!.. cut it out..
2006-09-19 15:25:37
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answer #6
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answered by volksbank 4
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Good point. Satan has the members of this cult blinded. Our beliefs are founded on the Bible. Their bible is formed around the beliefs of Charles T. Russell. I pray that Jesus Christ the Son of the living God reveals to the JWs who He really is. Grace and Peace!
2006-09-19 17:21:05
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answer #7
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answered by Not perfect, just forgiven 5
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The deliverance of the saints must take place some time before 1914.
-- Charles Taze Russell, founder of the Jehovah's Witnesses,
"Studies in the Scripture", 1910 edition
The deliverance of the saints must take place some time after 1914.
-- Charles Taze Russell, founder of the Jehovah's Witnesses,
"Studies in the Scripture", 1923 edition
2006-09-19 15:42:15
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answer #8
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answered by Anonymous
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The Greek dose not have the word God either... or Apostle...or Abraham... or Salvation... But it do have the Greek word for those... can we say the word Translation...But that dose not excuse the JWs for their abomination they call a bible... JWs are not even of The Christian Faith
2006-09-19 15:24:59
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answer #9
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answered by IdahoMike 5
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all true, remember the new testament is Christ & the Holy spirit's story. and was not written in Hebrew.
2006-09-19 15:28:14
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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