Is it possible that the word "lord (God) hundreds years ago in bible has changed into "lord" (man) in present bible?
2006-09-19 04:20:01 · 22 answers · asked by Verdi 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
The Bible uses the word "lord" in two different contexts.
1) LORD: This word is first observed at Genesis 2:4 and is substituted for God's personal name, Jehovah, out of respect.
2) Lord: This word is first observed at Genesis 18:3 and is the Hebrew word "Adonai" or "Adonay" meaning:
1) my lord,
a) of men
b) of God
2) Lord - title, spoken in place of Yahweh in Jewish display of reverence.
Throughout the Bible, we see Adonai used when refering to both God and to men. For example, Sarah called Abraham "Adonai" at Genesis 18:12. It is important to consider the context when evaluating whether "Adonai" refers to God or a man.
However, as explained above, whenever you see LORD, it always refers to God.
Peace.
2006-09-19 04:32:43 · answer #1 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, in certain contexts, "Lord" applies to a person, such as Ephron and Sarah both referring, in seperate instances, to Abraham as "my lord", Bethuel referred to Put as "my lord", and Jacob referred to Esau as "my lord".
However, the term is also referred to when speaking about God. The term simply shows a position of authority. However, in English, we capitalize the L for the sake of being able to tell the difference when someone refers to a person, or when they refer to God.
However, it is clear when which is meant as which because of context. If it's a passage clearly between two people, and God has not been mentioned in quite a while, it's pretty awfully likely it's a term of respect. If it's a soliloquy, it's pretty awfully likely it's referring to God.
2006-09-19 04:30:59 · answer #2 · answered by seraphim_pwns_u 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The word Lord was used to describe God in several places but is usually very easy to spot as reference to Him. However, Jesus uses the word Lord in a couple of his parables to mean one who is the head of house or estate.
2006-09-19 04:25:18 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not in every useage in the Bible is the word lord used to refer to God, however, it can be seen that when the word "Lord" is used to refer to God, while the word "lord" does not in most cases.
2006-09-19 04:23:51 · answer #4 · answered by Bob 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The English word Lord has several Hebrew words with differing meanings. You will have to look at the context, and then check it in a Strong's Concordance.
2006-09-19 04:24:41 · answer #5 · answered by Minister 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, it does not always refer to God. In Hebrew, there are several words that are translated into the English word "Lord." Yahweh, however, did always refer to God.
2006-09-19 04:29:45 · answer #6 · answered by Sifu Shaun 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
when the English Bibles capitalize all letters like LORD it means the tetragramen... which always means God
LORD in English stands for the Hebrew YHWH yud he vav he
and often felt connected with the I AM name of God
the word lord... on the other hand. without the all captials is a different word.. can be used like 'sir' and is a different hebrew words adon adonai and can just be a term of respect
2006-09-19 04:26:30 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it refers to Lord God Almighty. I don't know what you mean by present bible (man)? Jesus was a man both human and divine. Hope I helped.
2006-09-19 04:22:43 · answer #8 · answered by makeitright 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
When in the light and a voice called out to Paul, he answered
"Who art thou Lord"
He used the word Lord to acknowledge one greater than he! As in a King, or any other who had authority over him!
2006-09-19 05:26:40 · answer #9 · answered by Grandreal 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe we have the inerrant word of God in the original languages preserved for us in the Bible. I also know that many times the word can be used for an employer... Look to the context... Jim
2006-09-19 04:26:38 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋