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Muslim's claim that Isaiah 42 is a prophecy of Muhammad. Yet Isaiah 53 is one of the foremost prophecies of the crucifixion of Christ in the entire Old Testament.

My question is: on what basis do you feel Isaiah 42 is uncorrupted which prophecies Muhammad, but Isaiah 53 is corrupted that prophesies the crucifixion of Christ?

2006-09-18 11:25:08 · 10 answers · asked by crash 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

10 answers

That's just the point, Islam takes what they want for the sake of their beliefs, and discards the rest. And say it is a bad translation. What I can't believe is that they claim there are 5000 errors in the Bible, while claiming that there Quran is uncorrupted. They will pick and chose parts of the Bible that supports there Quran, while discarding those that disprove it.

When the Dead Sea Scrolls were found, it showed that the translations that we have today are pretty much the same as when the dead sea scrolls were written. So their arguement that it is a bad translation passed down over the centuries doesn't hold water. They also discard all other historical references to the existance and death of Christ that are outside the Bible.

2006-09-18 11:33:04 · answer #1 · answered by Bob 5 · 1 1

Islam is the call of the religion and Muslims are followers of Islam. Islamics isn't a term that refers to something or every physique in Islam. Islamic (no s) may well be utilized as an adjective, for occasion Islamic study.

2016-10-15 03:37:23 · answer #2 · answered by mcfee 4 · 0 0

Muslim believe that old testament and new testament is a mixture of true and false so anything that agrees with Quran should be accepted and anything that least conflicts with Quran should be rejected now if you feel that it is offensive because Muslims rather believe that Jews and Christan's holy books are corrupted so Muslim feel in the same way when you say that it is the book not from God.Remember that Muslims have accepted every prophet but ahley kitaab( Jews and Christan's) have not accepted our holy prophet(Peace and blessing on him)

2006-09-18 12:46:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Here is the Muslim mantra for bible correction:
Anything that talks of Jesus Christ very clearly is definitely corrupted while anything that can be twisted in the most vaguely possible way to fit Mohammad (or their version of him) is correct.

2006-09-18 11:34:46 · answer #4 · answered by defOf 4 · 0 1

look here start with Deuteronomy 18.
In Deuteronomy 18, Moses stated that God told him: “I will raise up for them a prophet like you from among their brothers; I will put my words in his mouth, and he will tell them everything I command him. If anyone does not listen to my words that the prophet speaks in my name, I myself will call him to account.” (Deuteronomy 18:18-19).1
From these verses we conclude that the prophet in this prophecy must have the following three characteristics:

1) That he will be like Moses.

2) That he will come from the brothers of the Israelites, i.e. the Ishmaelites.

3) That God will put His words in to the mouth of this prophet and that he will declare what God commands him.A prophet like Moses:
There were hardly any two prophets who were so much alike as Moses and Muhammad . Both were given a comprehensive law and code of life. Both encountered their enemies and were victorious in miraculous ways. Both were accepted as prophets and statesmen. Both migrated following conspiracies to assassinate them. Analogies between Moses and Jesus overlook not only the above similarities but other crucial ones as well. These include the natural birth, the family life, and death of Moses and Muhammad but not of Jesus. Moreover Jesus was regarded by his followers as the Son of God and not exclusively as a prophet of God, as Moses and Muhammad were and as Muslims believe Jesus was. So, this prophecy refers to the Prophet Muhammad and not to Jesus, because Muhammad is more like Moses than Jesus.
Also, one notices from the Gospel of John that the Jews were waiting for the fulfillment of three distinct prophecies. The first was the coming of Christ. The second was the coming of Elijah. The third was the coming of the Prophet. This is obvious from the three questions that were posed to John the Baptist: “Now this was John’s testimony, when the Jews of Jerusalem sent priests and Levites to ask him who he was. He did not fail to confess, but confessed freely, “I am not the Christ.” They asked him, “Then who are you? Are you Elijah?” He said, “I am not.” “Are you the Prophet?” He answered, “No.” (John 1:19-21). If we look in a Bible with cross-references, we will find in the marginal notes where the words “the Prophet” occur in John 1:21, that these words refer to the prophecy of Deuteronomy 18:15 and 18:18.2 We conclude from this that Jesus Christ is not the prophet mentioned in Deuteronomy 18:18.
2) From the brothers of the Israelites:
Abraham had two sons, Ishmael and Isaac (Genesis 21). Ishmael became the grandfather of the Arab nation, and Isaac became the grandfather of the Jewish nation. The prophet spoken of was not to come from among the Jews themselves, but from among their brothers, i.e. the Ishmaelites. Muhammad , a descendant of Ishmael, is indeed this prophet.

Also, Isaiah 42:1-13 speaks of the servant of God, His “chosen one” and “messenger” who will bring down a law. “He will not falter or be discouraged till he establishes justice on earth. In his law the islands will put their hope.” (Isaiah 42:4). Verse 11, connects that awaited one with the descendants of Kedar. Who is Kedar? According to Genesis 25:13, Kedar was the second son of Ishmael, the ancestor of the Prophet Muhammad .
3) God will put His words in the mouth of this prophet:
The words of God (the Holy Quran) were truly put into Muhammad’s mouth. God sent the Angel Gabriel to teach Muhammad the exact words of God (the Holy Quran) and asked him to dictate them to the people as he heard them. The words are therefore not his own. They did not come from his own thoughts, but were put into his mouth by the Angel Gabriel. During the life time of Muhammad , and under his supervision, these words were then memorized and written by his companions.

Also, this prophecy in Deuteronomy mentioned that this prophet will speak the words of God in the name of God. If we looked to the Holy Quran, we will find that all its chapters, except Chapter 9, are preceded or begin with the phrase,“In the Name of God, the Most Gracious, the Most Merciful.”Another indication (other than the prophecy in Deuteronomy) is that Isaiah ties the messenger connected with Kedar with a new song (a scripture in a new language) to be sung to the Lord (Isaiah 42:10-11). This is mentioned more clearly in the prophecy of Isaiah: “and another tongue, will he speak to this people” (Isaiah 28:11 KJV). Another related point, is that the Quran was revealed in sections over a span of twenty-three years. It is interesting to compare this with Isaiah 28 which speaks of the same thing, “For it is: Do and do, do and do, rule on rule, rule on rule; a little here, a little there.” (Isaiah 28:10).
that was a good question

2006-09-18 11:27:44 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

I am a Jew----and, I do not interpret that at all to indicate that it is Jesus.

That is a made up Christian idea.

2006-09-18 11:28:52 · answer #6 · answered by Shossi 6 · 1 0

omg dont encourage these nuts. they need to come into the 21st century or **** off- thats your choice mohammed 21st century or fuuck off.

2006-09-18 11:26:29 · answer #7 · answered by mr_soapytitwank 3 · 0 1

read that link bec i dont know about that prophecieshttp://www.answering-christianity.com/links.htm

2006-09-18 11:29:08 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

do you mean muslims?

2006-09-18 11:30:09 · answer #9 · answered by abdulaziiz 3 · 0 0

OMG

2006-09-18 11:27:28 · answer #10 · answered by criminalsinsingapore 2 · 0 0

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