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Please give an anwser to the question not a diversion of it and even the kingdom interlinar says it

2006-09-18 10:13:07 · 4 answers · asked by eternalsouljaandson 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

Excuse me TeeM and all those will tell me scripture that say Jesus is Gods son...I understand all that and agree All I am saying is the Bible says Jesus is THE GOD not o my god (a 20th centery saying they didn't have in acient israel). The interliear and greek says THE LORD OF ME AND THE GOD OF ME not o my god....Sorry but the question is JESUS THE GOD OF YOU not what was Thomas saying

2006-09-18 14:49:26 · update #1

and to teem s subjection statment...women is subject to man in that same chapter but does it make her less human (jesus is subject to the father not making him less God).....and Jehovah calls Jesus God in Hebrews 1:8 the greek says "to the son he says your throne o God is forever and ever".

2006-09-18 14:52:41 · update #2

again please don't divert the question

2006-09-18 14:53:00 · update #3

4 answers

There is no reason to insist that Thomas' exclamation "My Lord and my God" was anything more than an interjection directed at no one in particular. Even today, a person who verbally exclaims "oh my god!" is almost never actually addressing his deity.

Nevertheless, Jesus actually is a god and a lord, and Thomas would have recognized him as such. Neither the title "lord" nor the title "god" would have implied that Thomas viewed Jesus as an equal to Jesus' Father, the Almighty God Jehovah.

(1 Corinthians 8:4-6) There is no God but one. For even though there are those who are called "gods," whether in heaven or on earth, just as there are many "gods" and many "lords," there is actually to us one God the Father, out of whom all things are, and we for him

(Philippians 2:5-6) Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God's form, gave no consideration to a seizure, namely, that he should be equal to God

(1 Corinthians 15:28) But when all things will have been subjected to him, then the Son himself will also subject himself to the One who subjected all things to him

Learn more:
http://watchtower.org/library/g/2005/4/22/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/library/w/1998/3/15/article_01.htm
http://watchtower.org/library/ti/index.htm

2006-09-19 04:17:02 · answer #1 · answered by achtung_heiss 7 · 2 0

Eternalso,

Yes in Greek it reads God of him which is proper Greek, If that was proper English all bible translations would read the same, but it is translated in to proper English as My God.

28Thomas answered and said to Him, "My Lord and my God!" (NASB)

Who said "Oh my God" is a 20th century expression?

Let me understand this,

If woman and man are the same Humans, And God and Jesus are the same God, Then Jesus and man are the same God.

I'm sorry I can't agree with that.

Heb 1:8, You quit reading to soon, vs 9 explains it when it says "God, your God anointed you."

Vs 8 is not calling Jesus God, put he is explaining that God is the Power Behind Jesus Throne, Read Ps 45, were this quote comes from. It's talking about a human King of Israel.

On two occations David refused to kill King Saul the anointed (messiah, christ) of Jehovah.

Just as it was said that David sat on Jehovah's Throne.

The question is not what he said, but what Thomas meant.

If my great aunt Mable walked into the room and I had heard she had died.

and I exclaim, "Oh my God ! " Did I mean that aunt Mable is God? of course not.

I can't read Thomas' mind can you?

I do know that John 20:31 John said he wrote his gospel to prove that Jesus is the Son of God.

This would have been an ideal place to say

I wrote this to prove that Jesus is God. but he didn't.

I do know that +/-30 years after Jesus was resurrected Paul said that Jesus is in subjection to God, the same as man is in subjection to Jesus. 1 Cor 11:3

I do know that +/- 60 years after Jesus was resurrected Jesus calls Jehovah "my God" at Rev 3:14.

2006-09-18 11:25:33 · answer #2 · answered by TeeM 7 · 3 0

blah blah blah Questions about Jesus, or Questions designed to convert or recruit people to Jesus (or even away from Jesus for that matter)are simply a waste of time. Ditto for being "saved" or trying to clarify minute points of scripture when there are so many different interpretations and editions of text. People have already decided for the most part if they believe in the fiction written in the bible. People who feel God talks to them have psychological problems because hearing voices is a psychological illness. All the major world religions have issues like this.

2006-09-20 07:30:31 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 2

Without a doubt, you have often heard the claim that Jesus is God, the second person in the "Holy trinity." However, the very Bible which is used as a basis for knowledge about Jesus and as the basis for doctrine within Christianity clearly belies this claim. We urge you to consult your own Bible and verify that the following conclusions are not drawn out of context:

1. God is All Knowing.....but Jesus was not
When speaking of the Day of Judgment, Jesus clearly gave evidence of a limitation on his knowledge when he said, "but of that day and hour knoweth no man, no, not the angels which are in Heaven, neither the son, but the Father." Mark 13:32, and Matt 24:36. But God knows all. His knowledge is without any limitations. That Jesus, of his own admission, did not know when the Day of Judgment would be, is clear proof that Jesus is not all-knowing, and that Jesus is therefore not God.
2. God is All Powerful.....but Jesus was not
While Jesus performed many miracles, he himself admitted that the power he had was not his own but was derived from God when he said, "Verily, verily I say unto you, the Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do..." St. John 5:19. Again he said, "I can of mine own self do nothing: as I hear I judge: and my judgment is just; because I seek not mine own will, but the will of the Father which hath sent me." St. John 5:30. But God is not only all-powerful; He is also the source of all power and authority. That Jesus, of his own admission, could do nothing on his own is clear proof that Jesus is not all-powerful, and that therefore Jesus is not God.
3. God does not have a God.....but Jesus did have a God.
God is the ultimate judge and refuge for all, and He does not call upon nor pray to any others. But Jesus acknowledged that there was one whom he worshipped and to whom he prayed when he said, "l ascends unto my Father and your Father, and to my God and your God." St. John 20:17. He is also reported to have cried out while on the cross, "My God, my God why hast thou forsaken me?" Matt 27:46. If Jesus were God, then couldn't this be read, "Myself, myself why hast thou forsaken me?" Would that not be pure nonsense? When Jesus prayed the Lord's prayer (Luke 11:2-4), was he praying to himself? When in the garden of Gethsemane he prayed, "O my Father, if it be possible, let this cup pass from me: Nevertheless not as I will but as thou wilt." Matt 26:36-39. Was Jesus praying to himself? That Jesus, of his own admission and by his own actions, acknowledged, worshipped, and prayed to another being as God is clear proof that Jesus himself is not God.
4. God is an invisible spirit.....but Jesus was flesh and blood
While thousands saw Jesus and heard his voice, Jesus himself said that this could not be done with God when he said. "No man hath seen God at any time." St. John 1:18. '"Ye have neither heard His voice at any time nor seen His shape." St. John 5:37. He also said in St. John 4:24. "God is a spirit and they that worship him must worship him in spirit and in truth." That Jesus would say that no one had seen or heard God at any time, while his followers both saw and heard him, is clear proof that Jesus was not God.
5. No one is greater than God and no one can direct Him but Jesus acknowledged someone greater than himself whose will was distinct from his own.
Perhaps the clearest indication we have that Jesus and God are not equal, and therefore not one and the same, come again from the mouth of Jesus himself who said in St. John 14:28, "My Father is greater than I." When someone referred to him as good master in Matt 19:17, Jesus responded, "Why callest thou me good? There is none good but one, that is God..." Furthermore, Jesus drew clear distinctions between himself and God when he said, "I proceeded forth and came from God, neither came I of myself but He sent me." St. John 8:42. Jesus gave clear evidence of his subordination to God, rather than his equality with God, when he said in Luke 22:42, "not my will but thine be done" and in St. John 5:30, "I seek not mine own will but the will of the Father which hath sent me." That Jesus would admit that he did not come into the world on his own initiative but was directed to do so, that he would acknowledge another being as greater than himself, and that he would negate his own will in deference to affirming the will of another, give clear proof that Jesus is not the Supreme One and therefore Jesus is not God.

2006-09-21 23:34:53 · answer #4 · answered by Nani 2 · 1 0

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