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Or are Xians putting words into His mouth?

2006-09-18 00:28:32 · 11 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

I don't think that Jesus ever addressed this issue. It was very clear in the law in the Old Testament, that Jesus came to fulfill that God condemned Sodom and was against "men lying with men as with a woman" from Leviticus.

Since Jesus did not specifically free anyone from those statutes I would say that He felt the law had already covered it adequately. The only thing that Jesus specifically freed us from in the law was some of the sabbath keeping was too strictly interpreted for Him.

2006-09-18 00:33:29 · answer #1 · answered by Makemeaspark 7 · 0 2

Jesus did teach against fornication, which is sexual intercourse outside marriage, so yes. You must also remember that Jesus chose the apostle Paul as His "chosen vessel" to reveal further teachings to us (and to clarify existing teachings). Therefore, Paul's teachings have the same authority as the words Jesus spoke while on earth.

Primarily, the Christian position regarding homosexuality is based on two portions of NT Scripture: 1 Corinthians 6:9 and Romans 1:18-32. The most controversial of these is 1 Cor. 6:9, because certain irresponsible folks have purposefully mistranslated the meaning of the words "malakos" (translated as "effeminate" in the KJV) and "arsenokoites" (translated as "abusers of themselves with mankind," in the KJV, i.e. homosexuals). One web site that perpetuates these mistranslations is "soulforce.org": http://www.soulforce.org/article/homosex... These folks argue Paul "made up" the words "malakos" and "arsenokoites," and we cannot be certain what they really mean. Soulforce postulates these words only condemn male prostitution. This is blatently incorrect.

Ask any reputable Greek scholar about this controversy; after he/she rolls his/her eyes in complete exasperation, you will be told this: "malakos" is an established Greek word and means "soft or fancy." "Arsenokoites" is a combination of words: "arsen" means male; "koite" means bed, although it's also a pun meaning coitus. Put together, this word refers to homosexual activity.

Romans 1:18-32 describes women who "did change the natural use into that which is against nature" and are condemned, as are men who, "leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet." As far as I am aware, there are no translation controversies here.

Christians should understand that we are to "hate the sin but love the sinner." This applies to adulterers, murderers, fornicators and other sinners as much as it applies to homosexuals. One sin is not worse than another in God's eyes -- with the exception of unbelief.

Peace.

2006-09-18 00:39:06 · answer #2 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0 0

Depends on how direct you want it.
Did he specifically mention homosexuality? No. Not in the Gospels

BUT
Jesus reemphasizes the original plan and intent of God was a Heterosexual marriage/relationship.
Mathew 19:4
"Haven't you read," he replied, "that at the beginning the Creator 'made them male and female,'[a] 5and said, 'For this reason a man will leave his father and mother and be united to his wife, and the two will become one flesh'[b]?

2006-09-18 00:38:27 · answer #3 · answered by williamzo 5 · 2 0

Jesus never specifically addressed homosexuality that we know about. If he had, and reversed anything specifically regarding the Old Testament Laws in this regard, it would have been recorded.

It would also have revealed Him to be a false prophet, and therefore not the Christ.

2006-09-18 00:55:47 · answer #4 · answered by MamaBear 6 · 0 0

According to the Bible, Jesus never said anything about homosexuality, positive or negative. His message was one of love and acceptance and forgiveness-- of beggars and thieves and whores and tax collectors. Paul, on the other hand, had a lot to say about everything he disapproved of -- especially women. Your best bet to answer your question is to read the first four books of the New Testament.

2006-09-18 00:44:22 · answer #5 · answered by expatturk 4 · 0 1

Yes - he said "Love the Lord God with all of your mind, body, and Spirit." He also said "Love your neighbor as yourself." So in a manner of speaking - he said that we should treat "gays" (your words) just like everyone else, with LOVE.

Don't get made as "Xians" (your words) - they speak for themself, not for everyone.

2006-09-18 00:34:57 · answer #6 · answered by Forgiven 3 · 0 2

If He did it is not in the four Gospels. However Saint Paul does refer to homosexuality in his letters.

2006-09-18 00:34:13 · answer #7 · answered by andy c 7 · 0 1

Jesus was educated in Greek culture with its open acceptance of homosexuality so I believe his view of it might have been neutral.

2006-09-18 00:33:03 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 3

leviticus 20;13 jude 1; 7 homo's will have their place in the lake of fire

2006-09-18 00:59:35 · answer #9 · answered by lefftylucy 3 · 0 1

no, jesus never mentioned homosexuality

2006-09-18 00:34:21 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

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