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7 answers

Nothing expect perhaps to say that certain officers should have one wife. Not clear if that means 'one' or 'at least one'.

The Roman family system was monogamy. When the church became a political institution, it adopted to Roman customs.

2006-09-17 18:15:56 · answer #1 · answered by Woody 6 · 0 0

For this cause shall a man leave his father and mother, and shall be joined unto his wife, and they two shall be one flesh.

How do you become one flesh with one wife and then take on another one? The Bible everyone is referring to allowing it is early Old Testament. The above is New Testament.

And Timothy (New Testament) also says A deacon must be the husband of but **one wife** and must manage his children and his household well. Those who have served well gain an excellent standing and great assurance in their faith in Christ Jesus.

Under the New Covenant and New Testament we only get one. Sorry.

2006-09-18 01:21:44 · answer #2 · answered by Augustine 6 · 0 0

The Bible does not prohibit polygamy. It actually commands it in some cases (if your brother dies, you're supposed to take his wife as your own even if you're already married, and produce children in his name).

2006-09-18 01:17:38 · answer #3 · answered by lenny 7 · 0 0

no, monogamy is just a cultural thing. its not prohibited in the bible.

2006-09-18 01:19:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Here's what I could find.
2 Timothy 3:1-3
1Here is a trustworthy saying: If anyone sets his heart on being an overseer,[a] he desires a noble task. 2Now the overseer must be above reproach, the husband of but one wife, temperate, self-controlled, respectable, hospitable, able to teach, 3not given to drunkenness, not violent but gentle, not quarrelsome, not a lover of money.

2 Timothy 3:12-13
12A deacon must be the husband of but one wife and must manage his children and his household well. 13Those who have served well gain an excellent standing and great assurance in their faith in Christ Jesus.

Titus 1:5-7
5The reason I left you in Crete was that you might straighten out what was left unfinished and appoint[a] elders in every town, as I directed you. 6An elder must be blameless, the husband of but one wife, a man whose children believe and are not open to the charge of being wild and disobedient. 7Since an overseer[b] is entrusted with God's work, he must be blameless—not overbearing, not quick-tempered, not given to drunkenness, not violent, not pursuing dishonest gain.

2006-09-18 01:21:46 · answer #5 · answered by Searcher 7 · 0 0

Specifically, no, but the intent is quite clear, and only semantic twisting will allow you to think otherwise. For instance, see Matthew ch. 19.

2006-09-18 01:21:26 · answer #6 · answered by LooneyDude 4 · 0 0

it is strictly a cultural thing.

2006-09-18 01:29:05 · answer #7 · answered by crazyman_2 1 · 0 0

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