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There are some discrepensies between the NIV and the KJV,

these include but are not limited to:

Leviticus 18:22, KJV uses the word abomination, NIV does not. It uses detestable. This is regarding homosexuality.

Leviticus 25:45, KJV says its ok to have children slaves, NIV say sits ok to have temporary residents as slaves.

So which is the word of God? Am I permitted to have children as my property as it states in the KJV? Or am I bound by the NIV?

Thanks@

2006-09-17 11:16:06 · 12 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

12 answers

Leviticus 20:9 Any child that curses his mother or his father shall be put to death.

How do they differ on killing our children?

2006-09-17 11:21:22 · answer #1 · answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 · 0 0

Lev 25:44-46 -
Property in foreign slaves is here distinctly permitted. It was a patriarchal custom Gen_17:12. Such slaves might be captives taken in war (Num_31:6 following; Deu_20:14), or those consigned to slavery for their crimes, or those purchased of foreign slave-dealers. The price of a slave is supposed to have varied from thirty to fifty shekels. See Lev_27:3-4, note; Exo_21:32, note; Zec_11:12-13, note; Mat_26:15, note. It was the object of Moses, not at once to do away with slavery, but to discourage and to mitigate it. The Law would not suffer it to be forgotten that the slave was a man, and protected him in every way that was possible at the time against the injustice or cruelty of his master.

If you were a Jew, living in the Jewish community a few thousand years ago, and followed the Levitical law, then you may follow the law. Since you do not believe in God, or the Bible nor follow any of the precepts of the Bible, what difference does it make to you? You do what you want anyway, make your own rules for living, so have at it.

2006-09-17 11:24:01 · answer #2 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 1 0

The NIV is a laughable attempt at fixing some of the "moral errors" and harshness in the original KJV. Both versions are flawed by translation and editing. But, unless we know how to read the original scrolls, we will never really know how far off it is from the first drafts. It's almost worth learning how to read them. But, I don't have time or the motivation of faith to prompt me.

2006-09-18 02:35:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

They only have adifference of the way that they language is. KJV tlaks with shakpeream\n language with thou or shall or thee ad stuff like that. The NIV version has the words in modern language so that we would inderstand it better. And sometimes the words might chnge but they mean the smae thing so it doesn't matter. But if u like the harder words then read KJV .

2006-09-17 11:22:34 · answer #4 · answered by Mia 3 · 0 0

My God, How Stupid be the mind of man to consider that you might possibly have slaves, and especially one of my children, as i take the right of any freedom fighter to denounce you. The freakin' difference between the modern translation of NIV and the ancient KJV does not refute the teaching of our christ which states that i will not have you look upon your brother in hate, let alone kill him. This means that every consideration of the welfare of all of the children of God will be counted to your eternal reward. Here is the best answer...If you are a Boss over children, you are permitted to bind them in serventude to your company by any legal means necessary to gain the most profit. Otherwise, you are held to the same universal concept of all mankind in that "as you show kindness even to one of these little ones you have shown kindness to Me ." Fact upon Fact. Truth Upon Truth. and Wisdom be the mother of us all according to the Love of the Father. AMEN.

2006-09-17 11:30:10 · answer #5 · answered by frndchps 2 · 0 0

The King James version is a detestable, mistake ridden bible. Use any version but it. (Boy this will get them going!)

Funny, the QUEEREST KING England ever had, sexxing up 14 year old boys while his translators screwed the Bible at the same time and everyone loves it. Why???????????


The NIV is a much more accurate and modern translation. The scholars who translated it were up-to-date with the lates guides and word meanings.

2006-09-17 11:19:38 · answer #6 · answered by AdamKadmon 7 · 0 0

Sound like the same means but using different words. Funny how we play word games without ever getting in to the really meaning of what is behind the words altogether. But its not just the Bible we do that with is it?

Laws are made to be broken and the law breakers are the only ones who are protected. Victims are left to the damaged inflected only to see punishment laid on them while the guilty go free.

All because of games that we play with words.

2006-09-17 11:26:58 · answer #7 · answered by Dead Man Walking 4 · 0 1

I think the NIV is the better translation taken directly from the Origional Scripture.

I don't think we should have anyone as slaves anymore. Don't you? Love thy neighbour as yourself. I know I wouldn't want to be a slave.

2006-09-17 11:24:31 · answer #8 · answered by Momasita 2 · 1 0

Use a Greek-Hebrew interlinear.
probably KJV

2006-09-17 11:21:32 · answer #9 · answered by robert p 7 · 0 0

Get a concordance for eather of the books, and take the words back to the origonal text!

Then you will understand what God said!

2006-09-17 14:58:45 · answer #10 · answered by Grandreal 6 · 0 0

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