In finite states where space, time and matter has been shown to have a beginning is it possible that the law of causality only applies within the bounds of finity and that which caused the effect of such a state is itself unbounded by space and time therefore cannot be said to be an effect but as the uncaused cause more adequately defined as the willing of the intent of infinite intelligence?
Does this make any sense to anyone at all? Or have I finally flipped out with too much thinking?
2006-09-16
14:40:50
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5 answers
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asked by
messenger
3
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Society & Culture
➔ Religion & Spirituality
yes I know that finite things have a beginning. The question has to do with our understanding of the characteristics of non-finite (infinite) attributes.
2006-09-16
14:53:35 ·
update #1
does the laws of finite states apply in the same way to infinite states, since time and space would be nonexistent. Would causality apply there?
2006-09-16
14:56:25 ·
update #2