2006-09-16 14:15:53 · 11 answers · asked by Mere Mortal 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Common Law was the system of law governing England and all its colonies; note also that Jefferson made the accurate historical claim that common law extended back to even before England was christianized (when it was part of the roman empire). Therefore, when he wrote the above quote in 1814, he is emphasizing that the very long history of England and its laws and, of course, its influence on the drafting of the laws/statutes of the United States were NOT based on Christianity. He states this to emphasize the importance of separation of church and state, showing that the derivation of our very laws are not christian-based.
2006-09-16 14:30:49 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
It depends on what he was referring to. Is there anything else?
I found the rest of it -- he's referring to the separation of church and state.
"If, therefore, from the settlement of the Saxons to the introduction of Christianity among them, that system of religion could not be a part of the common law, because they were not yet Christians, and if, having their laws from that period to the close of the common law, we are all able to find among them no such act of adoption, we may safely affirm (though contradicted by all the judges and writers on earth) that Christianity neither is, nor ever was a part of the common law." Thomas Jefferson, February 10, 1814
2006-09-16 14:18:33 · answer #2 · answered by Justsyd 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
He meant that the legal underpinnings of our country are the Code of Hammurabi, English Common Law and the Constitution of the Iroquois Confederation... NOT the bible, NOT the 10 Commandments.
There were some people who maintained that English Common Law was based upon scripture, but Jefferson researched this claim, and found that it was based upon a mistranslation of the phrase 'ancien scripture'... where someone had translated to mean 'Holy Scripture' what SHOULD have been translated to 'ancient written'.
2006-09-16 14:22:10 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 4⤊ 0⤋
Thomas Jefferson was referring to the government being ran by the "church of England." That one church or denomination be the only legal church. Much like the old Russian orthodox church. Jefferson did want another country where the government controlled the church and the church controlled the people.
2006-09-16 14:30:03 · answer #4 · answered by Richard S 1 · 1⤊ 0⤋
You must consider the source: Thomas Jefferson also wrote his own version of the Bible and was called a pagan, even by his closest friends!
The vast majority of our founding fathers were Christian and made it plain, in speaches and in writing, that they believed in God and that this Nation was founded upon those beliefs. It plainly was their intent that matters of law should be subject to the guiding principles of Judeo-Christian beliefs: not only the interpretation of laws, but the passage of new laws, as well.
Peace.
2006-09-16 14:26:15 · answer #5 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 4⤋
The 10 commandments were considered common law long before christianity came into being.
2006-09-16 14:27:24 · answer #6 · answered by Squirrley Temple 7 · 0⤊ 5⤋
I take it to mean , the separation of church and state. Something the folks in Washington seem to have forgotten. Bush wants to be the American Taliban.
2006-09-16 14:23:45 · answer #7 · answered by Gorgeoustxwoman2013 7 · 4⤊ 2⤋
That our country was not even partly founded on Christianity. Thank you. Maybe some close minded individuals will get this.
2006-09-16 14:19:04 · answer #8 · answered by Spookshow Baby 5 · 4⤊ 2⤋
The constitution was written by Illuminati Satanists.
2006-09-16 14:19:59 · answer #9 · answered by oceansoflight777 5 · 0⤊ 3⤋
This country wasn't based on the Bible.
2006-09-16 14:19:15 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 0⤋