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Some have claimed that the rights of the citizens must take precedence over the rights of the criminal, even if police have to bend the rules. Do you agree? Why or why not?

2006-09-15 18:12:42 · 4 answers · asked by TheRenegade 1 in Politics & Government Law Enforcement & Police

4 answers

The right of a criminal to commit a criminal act never trumps the rights of law abiding citizens. Too often, criminals seek protection for their illegal acts under the guise of "civil rights."

Recently, here in Wisconsin, a criminal abducted a woman, and took her into his apartment. The police were aware of this, and while this criminal tortured and raped her, the police were patiently waiting outside for the warrant to enter.

How it this criminal's rights any more important than the rights of his victim's?

Criminals are afforded due process, but where is the due process for law abiding citizens?

I would be willing to experience a little extra bureaucracy in exchange for an extra amount of security and safety.

2006-09-15 18:23:40 · answer #1 · answered by Jim T 6 · 0 0

BlackSabbath is correct. Constitutional rights are not defined in terms of citizens or criminals. They are defined in terms of "people" (or anyone "accused") and apply to all government action.

But there are already many exceptions built into the system to protect the innocent from those who would harm them. Including things like "exigent circumstances", which allow police to enter premises without a warrant if someone's life of safety is in danger, or "hot pursuit" to cover the example of following a fleeing felon into some situations.

But what it really sounds like those people are trying to argue is that anyone suspected of having committed a crime should have less protection than someone suspected of being a victim. Which throws out "innocent until proven guilty" more than it already is.

Currently, arrests are allowed on probable cause that a crime has been committed, before any solid proof. And if someone is already an ex-felon based on a similar crime, that itself can often serve as probable cause, so those who have previously committed crimes already have less protection than those who have not.

The laws are already bent in favor of the police, and already get abused far too often in the name of justice. Without a specific example, it would hard to come up with a model that still presumes innocence but affords even fewer protection to suspects.

2006-09-16 12:46:26 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0 0

Citizens rights and criminal rights are one in the same. If you do not allow fair trials, people will be framed and abused by the system.

2006-09-16 01:14:36 · answer #3 · answered by Black Sabbath 6 · 1 1

Const gives rights 2 them

2006-09-19 11:46:19 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

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