A prophecy is specific and not subject to interpretation.
Example: Bob Jones, currently residing at 1 Main St, Anytown, USA will be suffer a fatal heart attack at 10:00 am, CST, on November 1, 2006.
There is nothing similar to that in the bible, so why do people insist the bible is "prophetic"?
Vague references to events at unspecified future times are not prophecies.
2006-09-15 06:28:19 · 19 answers · asked by Left the building 7 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Ho, ho, ho...
:-)
I was a practicing Christian for over thirty years and I have read the bible more than once.
Amazing how none of you offered examples while you were attempting to refute or correct my assertion.
2006-09-15 06:33:13 · update #1
Oh, in other wrods, if a "holy man" says animals will live & die, that is a prophecy?
In other words, the word prophecy as used to define bible prophecies is a meaningless term and really means "The (holy man) said..."
I see.
2006-09-15 06:37:11 · update #2
I am specifically referring to the claims that the bible is a fortune telling book and has and does correctly predict future events, i.e., the coming of Jesus as the Messiah.
My assertion is that it is too vague to be used in such a manner and is not prophetic because it is so vague and ambiguous.
2006-09-15 06:43:34 · update #3
To Anthea:
Thanks for the citations. Those are fine examples of what I am referring to.
Given the fact most, if not all, those conditions existed at the time the bible stories were written, those could hardly be considered prophetic.
2006-09-15 06:51:19 · update #4
The first five books of the bible are not prophetic at all since they were written long after the events ("creation") they claim to record.
Likewise with the Book of Daniel.
Jesus is not mentioned in Psalms or anywhere else in the Old Testament.
2006-09-15 07:07:46 · update #5
Because they recycle and reuse and on top of that the prophecies are so vague that they can be applied to just about any time in history. For instance on more than several occasions in the bible Jesus said, "I am coming soon" or "I am coming quickly" and of course he gives a description for end times (which is no different than violent end times predicted by other religions) Throughout the ENTIRE bible "soon and quickly" mean "soon and quickly". The numbers used for the definitions in greek and hebrew are the same when it is said that Jesus said, "Come quickly" as it is when Jesus says, "I am coming quickly". Keeping that in mind, here we are over two-thousand years later and no Jesus. ONE verse in the entire bible is used to justify this no show that has been put off for centuries "To the Lord a day is like a thousand years..." blah, blah, blah
Drives me insane. MUHAHAHAHAHA
2006-09-15 06:35:48 · answer #1 · answered by FreeThinker 3 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Let me see if I understand this, If God told Abraham that his decedents would be held in a foreign land as slaves for 400 years and then later in the Bible you read that Moses led the Israelites out of Egypt where they were captive 430 years later, this is not a prophecy?
Or, on Psalms 22:16-18 are prophecies of the things that would happen to Jesus and then in the Gospels one may read that these were fulfilled. Or Psalms 16:10, Psalms 110:1 and Psalms 68:18 all fulfilled in Acts2:31-34. To name a few.
God said in the fullness of time. These are vague references.
2006-09-15 07:01:03 · answer #2 · answered by Birdbrain 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Try checking Matthew 24:3 -14 and 2 Timothy 3:1-5
2006-09-15 06:39:52 · answer #3 · answered by hollymichal 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There are a number of verses, especially, in the book of Revelation, in which the author tells of a number of events that are to occur. This is prophecy. Prophecy does not have to be specific. In fact, through out history most prophecy has been vague and open to interpretation or 20/20 hindsight.
2006-09-15 06:32:40 · answer #4 · answered by Rance D 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
How many people do you want to disagree with?
proph·e·cy (prf-s) KEY
NOUN:
pl. proph·e·cies (-sz) KEY
An inspired utterance of a prophet, viewed as a revelation of divine will.
A prediction of the future, made under divine inspiration.
Such an inspired message or prediction transmitted orally or in writing.
The vocation or condition of a prophet.
A prediction
2006-09-15 06:32:23 · answer #5 · answered by Papa John 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Nostradamus was also a bit vague but he was known as a 'prophesizer'. Semantics issue perhaps.
Regarding the Bible, I agree with you for the mostpart. However, the Book of Revelations could be viewed as a prophecy, I think.
2006-09-15 06:33:06 · answer #6 · answered by AntiDisEstablishmentTarianism 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I think you are confusing prophecy with psychic forecasts or palm reading or tea leaves reading or maybe calling miss cleo...because you don't have a clue about what prophecy is.. it is spiritually discerned not naturally understood...and since you've made it clear you don't believe in God I don't see why your here questioning the things that belong to God in the first place
You obviously are hell bent on proving something that you will not be able to conquer....quit while your ahead...
2006-09-15 06:36:56 · answer #7 · answered by soldier612 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The Book of Revelation contains prophecy so does Daniel,Psalms,Matthew,1 Kings etc.Hum...You got some bad information there friend.God Bless.
2006-09-15 06:31:44 · answer #8 · answered by John G 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
Your definition of prophesy is flawed. Prophesy is poetic versed predictions of future events, and is found in all cultures and religions.
Your example is not a prophesy. However, prophesies themselves are a joke. Prophets shoot an arrow, then their believers paint a bulls-eye around it.
But the bible is prophetic because it uses poetic/prose verse to predict future events.
2006-09-15 06:33:15 · answer #9 · answered by lundstroms2004 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Probably because Bob Jones wasn't even around back then. That, and modern street address grids were unknown back in Biblical times.
What's your point?
Seems to me there are PLENTY of prophecies in the Bible - specifically pertaining to the end times.
2006-09-15 06:31:03 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋