"If a man happens to meet a virgin who is not pledged to be married and rapes her and they are discovered, he shall pay the girl's father fifty shekels of silver. He must marry the girl, for he has violated her. He can never divorce her as long as he lives. (From the NIV Bible, Deuteronomy 22:28)
how exactly does paying the girl's father some lousy money and MARRY the girl makes it fair for the girl that was violated??
this is a LAW in the bible, i dont care whether you use it or not.
if you don't apply it then it's really YOUR fault because you SHOULD apply God's laws right?
or you like to pich and choose?
2006-09-15 01:55:06 · 14 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
*pick*
2006-09-15 01:58:33 · update #1
arewethereyet,
OMG!!! you don't see this as unfair for the woman???!!!!! may be you should be raped and get to spend your entire life with the pig who raped you and see how happy you'll be.
2006-09-15 02:10:58 · update #2
That is a great question and I've asked it before. Look out, though, because you won't get many answers. People are afraid to answer questions like this one. The usual one, is "oh that was in the old testament".. Crappy answer if you ask me...
See, look at kongs answer, my point exactly!
2006-09-15 01:58:25 · answer #1 · answered by Squirrel 4 · 1⤊ 2⤋
In old testament times, that most likely better than what occurred in other societies of the same time. The laws of the old testament were given by God to the Jews as they seemed to need laws. Jesus was asked about the way divorces were performed by the scribes/pharisees in the new testament and he stated that that law was made since the Jews needed laws and that ideally a man and a woman once married were one and should not be divorced.
Jesus clarified in the new testament that we should not have to have all of these rules if only we would love our God with all our soul, mind, and body and to love others as we love ourselves.
I think if we followed what Jesus stated, there would not be the need for the shekels, etc as we would not have done it in the first place.
2006-09-15 02:12:14 · answer #2 · answered by bobm709 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Truthfully I don't think there are many who take entire Bible at it's literal truth (they say they do but anybody with minimal knowledge can twist them up). And it is stupid to say anybody who doesn't read the Bible as literal word of God is not Christian. It was written by men, and thus affected by the politics, biases, and sciences of the day. Religion too changes.
To answer your question, women in virtually every christian country have equal rights to men. There are still some cards stacked against them (like the effects of a fast free market economy on a woman taking a few months/years off after her child is born), but by-and-in-large women are recognized as having equal rights.
If a man rapes a woman that should generally mean a life prison term. If you show me a study stating that these men can be rehabilitated in a reliable and repeatable way then I'm all for letting them out, but until then, life.
2006-09-15 02:09:11 · answer #3 · answered by ? 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Totally unfair. I'm worth fifty shekels and a donkey, and I won't take a penny less!
But seriously, folks, the Bible is a totally misogynistic text, both the old and the new testament. Corinthians, below, is a prime example:
1 Corinthians 14:34-35 - Let women be silent in church; they are not to be allowed to speak. They must submit to this regulation, as the Law itself instructs. If they have questions to ask they must ask their husbands at home, for there is something indecorous about a woman's speaking in church.
2006-09-15 01:59:51 · answer #4 · answered by Kathryn™ 6 · 3⤊ 0⤋
First off a "Christian" wouldn't rape a girl, so the law is probably meant for non-Christians, Israelites or Islamics.
However, the law makes almost as much sense as getting 50 virgins on your death, that is, if you serve Ala correctly............ "What do the fifty virgins get for there death?" Maybe that's a good question for this board.
2006-09-15 02:06:43 · answer #5 · answered by carpedium 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Perhaps something was lost in translation, or was recorded in error, over the many different renditions which have been lost through the ages. It is obviously in violation of divine justice and common decency.
Do Jews follow this law?
2006-09-15 01:58:48 · answer #6 · answered by Smiley 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
They don't stone homosexuals anymore and don't drive a billygoat laden with the people's sins into the desert, neither do they avoid mixed fibres in their clothes, all among the things they are told to do in the old testament.
Of course they pick and choose, or have you met many Christians who love their enemies and forgive those that hate them, as they are commanded by their god in the New Testament?
2006-09-15 02:03:37 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 3⤊ 1⤋
Cultures and Societies have changed over the years and what we call acceptable behavior today would have been punished severely in Ancient Times. Cultures and Societies have to change or they become stagnant and die. Please remember this as we should not judge other Cultures and/or Societies of Ancient Times by the laws rules and mores of modern Society.
2006-09-15 02:05:17 · answer #8 · answered by Marvin R 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
So how do you see this as unfair? He rapes her, he has to spend the rest of his life taking care of her, has to spend the rest of his life listening her to complaining, has to care for her and her family (that's also part of the law) .... what were you expecting? Jail time? There were no jails in the desert.
Considering the time and place the law was created, it sounds fair to me.
2006-09-15 02:07:03 · answer #9 · answered by arewethereyet 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
The bible was written by men. When it was written women were nothing more that a possession.
2006-09-15 01:57:59 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋