ENGLISH is not the property of ENGLAND; but ENGLAND is the property of ENGLISH, as such, England has no right to enforce that English must be in England, English can be anywhere it pleases?
2006-09-14 22:03:59 · 22 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Languages
English is a metaphor, I am ENGLISH.
2006-09-15 05:25:28 · update #1
This question is nonsensical. The country was named for the common language its inhabitants used. It is now an international language. England has not tried to enforce "that English must be in England", so I don't get your point there.
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2006-09-14 22:37:37 · answer #1 · answered by joker_32605 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's false, in the sense that it's not ALL true, but:
ENGLISH is not the property of ENGLAND
This part is true.
England has no right to enforce that English must be in England, English can be anywhere it pleases?
and this part is true, but silly, because "England" has never tried to force English to remain in England; on the contrary, it has a long history of trying and often succeeding in forcing people of other places to speak English.
Some English "people" do claim to be the only real English-speakers, but I think most of them are just trying to get a rise out of Americans when they say that.
2006-09-15 08:13:28 · answer #2 · answered by Goddess of Grammar 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
England is not the property of English.
English is the language that formed the country of England
therefor English does belong to England.
English must be in England as the people who live in england are titled English. A Country is its people not its location necessarily.
English can be anywhere it pleases but it must also be at home in England
So I say False
2006-09-15 05:08:24 · answer #3 · answered by knowitall 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
English is not the property of England, but also England is not the property of English as a language. There are a few different meanings of the word English and so as a word play it is amusing, however, in acutality, both statements are not true.
2006-09-15 05:18:46 · answer #4 · answered by Shadowtwinchaos 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think it is correct because English as a language and a tool of human communication can not be monopolized by England.English is one of most popular language of International languages.which is studed in many countries nt only in England and many science books written in English.
2006-09-15 05:12:21 · answer #5 · answered by ? 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The statement? Break it down, honey, I'm not even going to think on such a complex issue. There's toooo many parts to the question; break it down and ask a series of smaller questions.
2006-09-15 05:08:28 · answer #6 · answered by Put_ya_mitts_up 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It's true because when a language becomes a global language it has no longer any one owner. It's the language of the people anywhere around the globe.
2006-09-15 05:06:25 · answer #7 · answered by buxiii 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the statement became false as soon as it reads:
but ENGLAND is the property of ENGLISH, the rest is irrevelent as it has already become false.
2006-09-15 05:42:57 · answer #8 · answered by nickieca 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
false. english originated in england. period. english can be anywhere it pleases but its still england. if you want to migrate somewhere else, then its your problem whether english is still under england or not.
2006-09-15 05:14:33 · answer #9 · answered by gaucherive 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
English is a globle language.
If not it should be made.
Then only all people will be able to love & understand.
2006-09-15 05:08:57 · answer #10 · answered by SKG R 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋