I was married for over 30 years to a Canadian woman. My earnings were far in excess of her's (she only worked 2 years). She became an American citizen after our divorce. I have since remarried; she has not. Will I receive my full benefits?
2006-09-14 06:55:17 · 4 answers · asked by pilota300b4 4 in Business & Finance ➔ Insurance
Your ex-wife has nothing to do with your benefits.
Unless you are paying alimony, you should have nothing to worry about.
2006-09-14 07:08:34 · answer #1 · answered by Erica, AKA Stretch 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
If you were receiving a stipend for a "dependent", then your total may be affected.
www.ssa.gov is the website for the Social Security Adminstration. Lots of areas to find answers, look for a 1-800 phone number to call for more specific answers to your situation.
2006-09-14 14:22:50 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You will, but because you were married over 10 years, she can claim a benefit that is 50% of yours.
2006-09-14 15:29:07 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
I don't see why not. She however, may not receive much or none.
2006-09-14 14:04:53 · answer #4 · answered by Pinolera 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋