This is an excellent question, and not a stupid one at all!
No, John the Baptist did not start the practice of baptism --and you are right, baptism as it is portrayed in the New Testament did not exist in the Old Testament.
However, the practice of baptism is based on the ceremonial purification in the mikvehs, stone containers of "living water" --rain water, spring water, etc. Men and women would ceremonial immerse in this water upon various events: childbirth, contact with a corpse, converting to Judaism, etc.
The rite of baptism begins to appear during the intertestamental period --in the period of time between the Old and New Testaments which is why baptism just seems to pop up in the Gospels with everyone knowing what it is supposed to be all about. During this era, ritual immersion as a part of the conversion or initiation process seems to lie at the roots of what becomes the baptismal rites of the Christian church.
I hope you will look at the websites below --there are some nice photos of the Jewish mikveh.
2006-09-13 16:23:41
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answer #1
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answered by Ponderingwisdom 4
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John the Baptist practiced water baptism, however he was not the first.
What is described in Christianity as baptism takes its roots from the Jewish purification ritual known as mikvah. Other religions around the world also used a water purification ritual, long before John the Baptist. These include:Mandeanism and Sikhism.
Therefore, John the Baptist was not the first to baptize, although he is often credited with being the first.
2006-09-14 01:21:12
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answer #2
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answered by Bruce Frazier 2
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No Baptism was an old testiment practice among the nation of Isreal. However it was not called baptism but something else....I dont remember. I will have to look it up.
The first issue of Baptism which water was used(baptism meaning the washing away of sin) first occured at the Great Flood of Noah. This was the first washing away of sin.....all sin...except for 6 people, who then had to repopulate the earth.
While the use of water in Baptism is necessary, the manner in which it is applied(modus applicandi) is optional. since the Greek verb (i cant spell it)means not only to immerse, but also to wash. Therefore baptize means to "apply water by washing, pouring, sprinkling, or immersing." (Christian Dogmatics, by John Theordore Mueller, TH.D.)
What makes baptism a Sacrament?....But water alone does not make Baptism a Sacrament. St. Augustine expresses the same truth in the words: "When the Word is connected with the element(water), then the act becomes a sacrament"....and the act becomes a Sacrament when it is performed according to Christ's institution. (Christian Dogmatics, by John Theordore Mueller, TH.D.)copywrite 1934
2006-09-13 22:53:24
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answer #3
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answered by bandaidgirl 3
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Baptism did and did not go on during the Old Testament. Women were required to undergo a monthly washing (actually a dunking into a tank of water like baptism) after each period or childbirth to show that they were clean of the blood.
Before the time of John, the ritual was expanded and also included men who want to show that they were seeking a cleanse of any "uncleaness" in them also. While never official a part of the Jewish faith, it was common at the time of Jesus. John merely picked up the existing ritual and used it to "cleanse" people seeking to repent from the sin. But then he also pointed those people to the coming Messiah - Jesus.
Jesus' disciples also baptist during the time they travelled with Jesus. But Jesus himself did not baptize. He would, after His resurrection, baptize people's hearts with the Holy Spirit, rather than just their bodies with water.
After the ressurection, baptism became "the" symbol of conversion to the Christian faith. The Jewish at that time totally abandoned any type of baptism, except the monthly washing for women.
2006-09-13 22:43:36
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answer #4
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answered by dewcoons 7
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I will tell you enough to get you started.
Please read the book.(BIBLE)
John was directed by God to prepare a people for the Messiah. Those that came to him and heard his preaching about the Messiah. Those that believed came forth bearing fruit meet for repentance(which means being able to tell of a time and place where God saved your soul) and were baptized( from the Greek word-baptizo, which means to immerse), became the material for Jesus' church.
It has no connection to the Old Testament ceremonial washing as Naaman did. It does not cleanse from sin but rather shows forth our death to sin and resurrection to newness of life in Christ.
The act of baptism, as commanded, although a beautiful and solemn ceremony is really the vehicle by which we enter into the Lords' church. Without scriptural baptism we cannot be members of the Lords' church.
Now go read the book and find the answers.
2006-09-14 00:06:54
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answer #5
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answered by preacher 3
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John baptized as a foreshadowing of the Christ to come. But notice, this is not the same as the baptism Christ commanded.
If you are baptized today with John's baptism, you have been baptized for the wrong reason.
John's baptism looked forward for Christ, but Christs baptism comes after belief and repentance of sins. (Mark 16:16, Acts 2:38, Acts 8:36-38) Those who are baptized must believe that Christ has come and that Jesus is the Christ.
Christ's baptism puts us "into Christ" and "into his death" where we contact his saving blood. (Rom 6:3-4, Col 2:12) Christ's baptism is "for the remission of sins" (Acts 2:38) and it washes away sins (Acts 22:16).
If you were only baptized with John's baptism, you still need to be baptized in the name of Christ (by the authority of Christ or according to the instructions of Christ). (Acts 19:1-5)
2006-09-13 23:08:01
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answer #6
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answered by JoeBama 7
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The only baptism that John did was the baptism of repentance and this had taken place before. People did not find it to be strange, and many did it.
He did not do the baptism that we do today for ceremonial purposes.
This is explained quite well in the book of acts. Where Apollo had been baptised of repentance for his sins, he did not know that he needed to be baptised of the Holy Spirit. Once he knew and understood this, he consented to the baptism of the holy spirit.
As Jesus began his ministry, he came to John to be baptized in repentance of sins, even though he was sinless, he needed to do this because he was in a fleshly body that had sin nature. Jesus never had to be baptized in a believers baptism (holy spirit) because he no longer resided in a fleshly human body.
2006-09-13 22:42:11
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answer #7
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answered by cindy 6
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John the baptist, did indeed, through inspiration from God started the baptism. It is truly a requirement for Christians.
Mar 1:4 John did baptize in the wilderness, and preach the baptism of repentance for the remission of sins.
Luk 1:13 But the angel said unto him, Fear not, Zacharias: for thy prayer is heard; and thy wife Elisabeth shall bear thee a son, and thou shalt call his name John.
Luk 1:14 And thou shalt have joy and gladness; and many shall rejoice at his birth.
Luk 1:15 For he shall be great in the sight of the Lord, and shall drink neither wine nor strong drink; and he shall be filled with the Holy Ghost, even from his mother's womb.
Luk 1:16 And many of the children of Israel shall he turn to the Lord their God.
Luk 1:17 And he shall go before him in the spirit and power of Elijah, to turn the hearts of the fathers to the children, and the disobedient to the wisdom of the just; to make ready a people prepared for the Lord.
2006-09-13 22:37:30
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answer #8
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answered by rangedog 7
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John the Baptist, started the full immersion into the water to wash away the sins.
2006-09-13 22:37:18
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answer #9
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answered by pooh bear 4
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It did go on in O.T. times,alot of synagoges had baptistrys,it was John though who baptized to wash away sin and get ready for the Messiah.Now when we are baptized,it into (as you go under)Jesus' death,and up to new life as a new creation in Christ Jesus.In O.T,it was just acknowledging that you were a sinner and needed washing,it didn't wash your sin away,you did that thru blood sacrifice.
2006-09-13 22:43:17
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answer #10
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answered by AngelsFan 6
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