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2006-09-13 15:29:30 · 21 answers · asked by portugal 2 in Politics & Government Immigration

21 answers

No. Hispanics share the Spanish language and a similar culture after having been colonized by spain. Brazil was colonized by Portugal. Portugal is not spain.

Although they both could technically claim to be "latins" as the two languages are based on the latin language. But they are not the same cultures.

2006-09-13 15:31:12 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 12 4

Hispanic derives from the word Hispania. Please read.
Though I must say that the Portuguese language is a very ancient one indeed. Personally, I would say that today Portugal, Gibraltar and Andorra is not Hispanic.

Hispania was the name given by the Romans to the whole of the Iberian Peninsula (modern Portugal, Spain, Andora and Gibraltar and to two provinces created there in the period of the Roman Republic: Hispania

Citerior and Hispania Ulterior. During the Principate, Hispania Ulterior was first divided into two other provinces, Baetica and Lusitania, while Hispania Citerior was renamed to Tarraconensis. Next, the western part of Tarraconensis was split off, first as Hispania Nova, later renamed Callaecia (or Gallaecia, hence modern Galicia). Since Diocletian's Tetrarchy (284 AD), the south of remaining Tarraconensis was again split off as Carthaginiensis, and probably then too the Balearic Islands, and all the resulting provinces formed one civil diocese under the Vicarius for the Hispaniae ('Spains'; in the western prætorian prefecture of the 'Gauls', that is, the Celtic provinces), who was also competent for Mauretania Tingitana (around Tangiers), which hence was also officially 'Hispanic'.

2006-09-13 15:55:08 · answer #2 · answered by tiger 4 · 1 1

No. While it is true that the term Hispano/Hispanic is derived from Hispania, the name given by the Romans to the entire Iberian Peninsula which includes modern-day Spain and Portugal during the period of the Roman Republic, historically Hispanic/Hispano has only ever applied to Spain and things related to this country or language. The derivation from or relation to Portugal and Portuguese (and Brazilian Portuguese) and its people is called Luso/Lusitanic.

2006-09-13 15:41:48 · answer #3 · answered by Dr. Phil 6 · 5 1

Are Brazilians Spanish

2017-01-16 09:53:49 · answer #4 · answered by wexler 4 · 0 0

My answer is no, but it might help to ask another question: Are people from the U.S. and Britain Anglo-Saxon?

Most people here and in the UK will answer no, that their countries even from their early history were made up of other ethnicities: Native American, Scotch Irish, Anglo Saxon, Welsh, Celts, etc.

Brazil is one of the richest melting pots in the world. It has the largest population of Japanese people outside of Japan, and strong immigration ties to Germany, The Netherlands, Italy, Eastern Europe, and the Middle East. The CIA factbook reports the following ethnicities from Brazil's 2000 census: white 53.7%, mulatto (mixed white and black) 38.5%, black 6.2%, other (includes Japanese, Arab, Amerindian) 0.9%, unspecified 0.7%.

I agree with other comments here that linguistically, Portugual is about as Hispanic or Latino as Italy is, and its ethnic make-up is changing every day with more Eastern Europeans and Africans entering its borders.

My wife is half Japanese, half Okinawan and 100% Brazilian. So is she Hispanic? Lord knows what our kids will be! We always like it when those little forms we fill out ask a different question:

What are you? Please check all that apply.

2006-09-14 14:58:35 · answer #5 · answered by Joseph Cartaphilus 2 · 3 1

Portuguese people are White/Mediterranean similar to their other Southern Europeans (the Mediterranean sea does not touch Portugal, but Portugal is unarguably part of the Mediterranean basin, located much closer to the Mediterranean sea than many regions of Northern Spain or Central/Northern France)

In the Iberian peninsula, Hispania was the part that belonged to Spain, not to Portugal! The part that belonged to Portugal was called Lusitania, hence the term "Lusitanic". If what was said back in the 16th century matters, then we might as well say that we are all Africans where everything started.

2015-07-10 12:01:44 · answer #6 · answered by ? 1 · 0 1

Hispanics are the folk of territories belonging to Spain in the course of the conquest and... communicate spanish. the portuguese and brazilian human beings communicate portuguese so... they don't seem to be hispanic :D

2016-10-16 00:33:56 · answer #7 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Brazilians and others consider themselves and are considered Hispanic. Hispanic refers to the countries that speak Spanish (THAT ARE NOT SPAIN). Although Brazil, was given to Portugal (Treaty of Tordesillas), South America was basically considered hispanic (or Spanish for some). Since for the most part, it was Spain's.

Spain and Portugal are NOT Hispanic. Spanish may be the main language in Spain, but if you call a Spanish person hispanic, they will probably be greatly offended, same with Portugal considering Portugal is in no way a country originally colonized by Spain.

2006-09-13 15:47:41 · answer #8 · answered by cyn1c4l 3 · 0 6

No. Hispanic refers to the Spanish language.

2006-09-13 15:32:55 · answer #9 · answered by Heidi 7 · 4 2

Luís de Camões, a 16th century Portuguese poet, wrote "Castilians and Portuguese: for Hispanics we all are. The whole peninsula was at that time referred to as España from the term Hispania.

2006-09-13 15:34:11 · answer #10 · answered by blabla 1 · 5 3

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