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Lev.12:2 ....'A woman who becomes pregnant and gives birth to a son will be ceremonially unclean for seven days, just as she is unclean during her monthly period

Lev.12:5 If she gives birth to a daughter, for two weeks the woman will be unclean, as during her period. Then she must wait sixty-six days to be purified from her bleeding.


THE KJV does NOT include the Lev. 12:5 - WHY?

DO YOU BELIEVE THE BIBLE is the WORD from GOD? Which Bible Version????????

2006-09-13 14:47:22 · 15 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

YES, KJV has used the word "MAID" to avoid the word WOMAN which is the opposite of MAN. Clever???

12:5 But if she bear a maid child, then she shall be unclean two weeks, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying threescore and six days.

2006-09-13 15:12:04 · update #1

15 answers

The question about why the period of ceremonial "uncleanness" is longer after the birth of a daugher is a question that has been called the "rabbi stumper."

No one can say for sure what the rationale was behind this commandment.

I can give you some information that might be helpful.

First of all, "uncleanness" is not meant as being dirty, disgusting or filthy, but rather it is a ceremonial or ritual state of being in the temple religion of ancient Israel. It's kind of hard for us today to understand --the idea that contact with certain things put one in a state of disconnect from temple observance. Blood was considered holy and the source or fluid of life itself--thus its spillage or seepage should be isolated and contained by the woman being at home during this time.

There are a number of different ideas on why the woman must remain away from temple longer with the birth of a female child. I will discuss only a few that seem like the best ideas to me:

1. Special protection. Women as the givers of life were to be give special care and protection. Daughters, because they were potential and precious bearers of new life, were to be secluded an extra measure of time for their safety and well-being, so they might grow to be fertile healthy women who bear sons and daughters for the nation.

2. It is medically known that because of the hormone levels of the mother, that a number of both male and female infants are born with slight discharges of milk from their nipples --this disappears soon after birth. In about 10% of female infants, there can also be a slight menstrual dischage. One scholar has proposed that because in these cases there are actually two females who are issuing blood, the time period of isolation must then be twice as long.

I hope this helps.

However, I am not sure what you mean when you say the KJV does not have Lev. 12:5??

2006-09-13 15:21:19 · answer #1 · answered by Ponderingwisdom 4 · 1 0

I just reread the Leviticus passage. I don't know where you get that the KJV omits v.5, it is right there in my Bible.

As to why the woman is "More Unclean" after delivering a girl child than after delivering a boy child, I don't see that in this passage. What it said was that her Purifying Period is Longer.
Now, as to why her Purifying Period is Longer...........I haven't a clue ! But I'm intrigued, so I will do a bit of digging in to God's WORD, which I would also suggest that you do, you'll be amazed at what you'll learn !

Oh.....Yes I do believe The Bible is God's Holy WORD. Personally I prefer the New King James Version, I also use the New American Standard, The NIV, and some others.

2006-09-13 15:07:25 · answer #2 · answered by Minister 4 · 1 0

The distinction that the Israelites drew between clean and unclean had a great effect upon the whole of their religious and social life. It applied in the first place to food. Certain animals, birds, and fishes were regarded as clean and might be eaten, while others were unclean and were forbidden. See Lev. 11; Deut. 14: 3-20. The flesh of any animal dying of itself or torn by wild animals was also forbidden (Ex. 22: 31; Lev. 17: 15; Lev. 22: 8; Deut. 14: 21). No Israelite might eat blood, which was regarded as containing the life; it had to be poured out and covered up (Gen. 9: 4; Lev. 17: 10-14; Lev. 19: 16; Deut. 12: 16, 23-25; Deut. 15: 23). Fat also was forbidden; it belonged to God (Lev. 7: 22-27).
For seven or fourteen days after the birth of a child the mother was unclean (Lev. 12). Uncleanness also resulted from the touch of a dead body (Lev. 11: 8; Lev. 21: 1-4, 11; Lev. 22: 4-7; Deut. 21: 22). The leper was unclean and communicated uncleanness to everything he touched (Lev. 13: 1 - 46: 14). In N.T. times, to enter the house of a gentile or to eat food with him involved uncleanness (John 18: 28; Acts 10: 28; Acts 11: 23). So long as a person was unclean he was cut off from the congregation. In ordinary cases of uncleanness it was sufficient to remain in seclusion till the evening and then to wash the body. In certain cases a sin offering was necessary.
Uncleanness referred to being ceremonially or ritually unclean, and should not be taken to mean that the touching of a dead body or the bearing of children was morally evil. These regulations (except the prohibition against blood, which was given as early as Noah’s day) were introduced in the Law of carnal commandments (of performances and ordinances) of the law of Moses; being fulfilled by the atonement of Jesus Christ, they are no longer required of the believers. See Mark 7: 15-23; Acts 10: 9-16, 28; Acts 15: 29; 1 Tim. 4: 4; 2 Ne. 25: 24-27; Mosiah 13: 29-32.

The KJV DOES include 12:5 http://www.biblegateway.com/passage/?search=Lev%2012:5&version=9;

2006-09-13 14:52:36 · answer #3 · answered by DanE 7 · 0 0

My KJV of the Bible does include Lev 12:5 - same as what you quoted. If it is missing from your KJV, I recommend you buy a new one. Apparently you have been editing your current one.

On the issue of the woman being unclean. When a woman had an issue of blood (for her period or following childbirth), she would follow the discharge with a ceremonial washing to show that she was free of blood. Avoiding blood, for sanitary reason, was important in the Jewish culture and law.

Because Jewish male children were circumcised on the eight day, God permitted the woman to go through the washing on the seven day so that she would be considered clean and able to participate in that milestone event in her son's life.

As a baby girl was not circumcised, the woman waited another two months before she went through the washing. This permitted her to have those extra two months alone with her daughter, without other family or society responsiblities to bond with her. There's something evil about that?

It is another example of how much God cares about women and the family. He gave them special laws to help them bond with their children and have stronger families.

**Update**
(Oh - just checked in 26 english versions of the Bible (including KJV) and Lev 12:5 - the way you quoted it - is in every single one of them. So somebody has been cutting up your copy of the book.)

2006-09-13 15:06:09 · answer #4 · answered by dewcoons 7 · 2 0

The sidenotes on Leviticus 12:5 from Bullinger's better half Bible King James version say this: threescore and 6 days. Double that when a guy infant. See v. 4 (14 + sixty six=80). This ordinance became not ensuing from any disparity between the sexes, yet became with the intention to alter them, so as that the beginning-value of ladies persons might not be in too great extra, because it otherwise might have been, and is, the place this ordinance isn't time-honored or noted.

2016-10-14 23:41:17 · answer #5 · answered by lander 4 · 0 0

I have heard that KJV (not New KJV) is the best. I was just looking at John 8:56 and found a difference from the NIV. I like KJV and that is what I use.

But let that not trouble you very much. God is able to save all - even those that have no bibles.

2006-09-13 14:53:20 · answer #6 · answered by JiveSly 4 · 0 0

In its original writting it was inspired. This is an interesting point I must study it out. Can not see that it is significant yet. It is hard to believe that a person would spend as much time as it must have taken to find this and make it into a deal braeker. I do not think it was God who hurt you so bad. I am gonna pray you see the truth and that the hurt will be taken away.

2006-09-13 14:57:30 · answer #7 · answered by icheeknows 5 · 1 0

You are reading from a book that claims to be a bible. That is why we stick with KJV because it was made in 1611.

All the version you will look at either than the KJV 1611, KJV, are NKJV are corrupted.

2006-09-13 14:51:25 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 0 1

Yes, but I can't say which version. I guess they all are the word of God, but there are some that leave out verses and that really bothers me.
My experience, I bled longer after giving birth to my son than I did after giving birth to my daughter, but that's just my physical experience of uncleanliness. Not to be gross.

2006-09-13 14:51:50 · answer #9 · answered by lees girl 4 · 1 0

umm i found it in th NKJ version and the KJV so not sure which bible your looking at and cant tell you why but i do know that we no longer have to sacrifice for any sin as jesus was the final and only needed sacrifice

2006-09-13 14:52:11 · answer #10 · answered by gsschulte 6 · 1 0

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