How is that when Egyptian, Assyrian, Greek, Roman literature is translated into English, the verses rhyme?

Question

James P, uh, no shite sherlock, but that doesn't explain the rhyme you genius. If the translator is trying to aesthetically alter the text then there is no way the original meaning can be close. Come on, some answers up here are typed before they are thought out.

Answer 1

I'm not sure which translations you are talking about. I've gone back to look through a variety of translations of ancient poetic compositions from Sumerian, Akkadian (including both Assyrian and Babylonian writings), Egyptian, Ugartic, Greek, Latin (and you could add biblical poetry to that), and here's what I found --

NONE of the translations used rhyme! (I would not say it's never been done, but I have a fair collection, and not a single one of them rhymed. So I sincerely doubt that is the ordinary practice.)

Perhaps you are thinking of the fact that most translations do try to render their translations in VERSE form (though there are quite a number that simply use prose). But verse does not need to rhyme, and in fact, rhyme schemes as we know them were not a practice with any of these ancient writings.

It is true that many translations of RHYMING verse try to produce a rhyme scheme -- not necessarily the same as that of the original, but one that has some of the same 'poetic feel'. That would include medieval (e.g., translations of the Song of Roland and Dante's Divine Comedy) and modern compositions. But it does not include the ancient writings you refer to.

In fact, I have seen many fine translations of European rhyming poetry into rhyming English verse which DID do quite a nice job of conveying the meaning of the original. It took a lot of hard work, thought and care by the translators, but it can often be done... though I think it is a bit easier with languages which bear some relation to each other (e.g., German and English).

Some of this goes to translation theory. If you think the only accurate translations are highly literal 'word for word' translations, even the non-rhyming verse translations of ancient works, cannot be 'accurate'. But if instead you recognize that we speak not in individual words but in larger units --sentences and paragraphs-- you'll see that it is possible to render these larger structures in ways that faithfully represent the meaning of the original, even while using literary devices (including rhyme).

Answer 2

Those aren't 100% literal translations. The translator chooses words to give you a sense of the rhyme scheme of the original, while hopefully staying pretty close to the meaning of the original.

Answer 3

It's not a direct translation, its a translation of the ideas. Come on, some questions up here are typed before they are thought out.

Answer 4

I suppose they try to interest the reader in the story as well as identify what is happening in the novel. You should read the Mesopotamian story, Epic of Gilgamesh, a terrific classic! The oldest epic ever written!!!

Answer 5

The next time you are in a book store see if they have any Dr.Seuess in Latin. Yes, Latin. Pick it up and read it aloud. It's a riot. I'm getting How The Grinch Stole Christmas for Christmas!

Answer 6

The interpreters take liberties.