Disclaimer: I'm an agnostic I'm not a Christian.
There must be something wrong with my Bible I'm reading. In the New International Version in Leviticus 18:22 it says the following:
" 'Do not lie with a man as one lies with a woman; that is detestable.
This was the NIV that was translated between 1965 and 1973.
Now in the King James Version, from 1611, the same verse Leviticus 18:22
22Thou shalt not lie with mankind, as with womankind: it is abomination.
According to http://www.m-w.com/ the words are defined as follows:
Detestable: arousing or meriting intense dislike
Abomination: extreme disgust and hatred
So, I'm confused, does the Judeo-Christian God hate homosexuals as it was translated in 1611, or does he just dislike them, as it is translated in the NIV copyright 1973.
Did the followers of God change their mind about their mythology?
Why the difference?
2006-09-13 05:09:25 · 32 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I think the translators frequented Studio 54 back in 1973 and felt they had to tone down the hate a little due to all their new experiences. LOL
2006-09-13 05:24:42 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Hi. You can be both ("Disclaimer: I'm an agnostic I'm not a Christian."). I usually don't "do" religious questions because either you agree and are loved or disagree and are hated. But being agnostic has no relevance to belief or non-belief in any God. It means that you do not believe that YOU have a soul that is separate from your body. Nothing more, nothing less.
2006-09-13 05:18:10 · answer #2 · answered by Cirric 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
the rationalization why people say those issues is as a results of the fact they have not seen themselves interior the reflect of Gods regulation yet, yet factor hands. Homosexuals purely have a distinctive sexual orientation, yet otherwise they're comparable to anybody else. interior the early church, the female have been out of control, for this reason the Apostle Paul giving this practise to the church. those stupid people have not have been given any know-how while quoting from the Bible. they simply use it to serve their very own faith and doctrines. God isn't any respecter of persons, no remember if male or female, he will use whoever obeys Him. for this reason rather everyone ought to now be particularly born lower back with the help of the water and the Spirit. John 3:3-5 skill, "If somebody needs to be born lower back, they ought to be born of water and the Spirit. right here water skill the baptism of Jesus, which does away with all the sins of the international as quickly as and for all. The Spirit skill that Jesus who won baptism from John the Baptist is God Himself.”
2016-11-07 06:03:27 · answer #3 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not much of a contradiction. The fact is God does not approve of these acts and people that practice them often obtain mental and physical problems from practicing them. Which gives a good reason why He does not approve. God loves the person but not the act. While on the subject of hate. Did Darwin change His mind that Aborigines were the missing link or did He find evidence that he and the other evolutionist were wrong to have them slain for studies and to be put on display in museums?
2006-09-13 05:35:01 · answer #4 · answered by Brian W 2 · 0⤊ 2⤋
That line in the original Hebrew is:
"V’et zachar lo tishkav mishk’vey eeshah toeyvah hee."
Literally translate it means:
"And with a male you shall not lay lyings of a woman."
In the context of the passage, I believe it aims to say:
"Ritual anal sex between two men in a Pagan temple is forbidden."
The word "homosexuality" wasn't coined until fairly recently, definitely long after the Bible was written. And each translator put his own biases into his translation. Now if there is no imperfections in the original writers of the Bible, does that include the translators?
2006-09-13 05:21:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
God makes gay people just as they are, and God doesn't make junk! So the answer is no.
Similarly, Jesus encouraged all people to love each other, and treat others as they would like to be treated. So the answer is also no.
The bible was written by men, and translated and mistranslated over the years.
No true Christian should detest any child of God on the basis of being exactly how they are made. Some 'christians' who preach hatred, bigotry, discrimination, and therefore violence against LGBT people are vicious hypocrites. I do not understand how they can judge and defame children of God and still have the gall to use the title of 'christian.'
People who say "love the sinner, hate the sin" obviously hate both. What bigots!
2006-09-13 05:15:46 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 3⤋
..In these verses, it's stated the act is detested, not the person... Tiny Israel was under strict guidelines for the emergence of one who the new testament says is "the savior of the world" and "all men" - rather than his appearing in the midst of tree worshipping folks..
....But Christ opened up a "new contract" and new testament, where he said, have you read how murder is evil? I tell you to dislike someone is evil.. So one of the things we realize is all humans are flawed and imperfect.. what is often referred to as, we're all sinners.. Each individaul heart chooses (everyday) to embrace the love of God, and acceptance of Christ's redmption of all from the result of imperfection, which is non-Life.. Or we can embrace a non-truth of God as being a hater.. and maker of 'hell' which is a glaring mistranslation - which should simply read "grave", which it could be said God 'created, when he endowed man and angel with rationality, and thus the ability to choose..
2006-09-13 05:23:51 · answer #7 · answered by flowerchilde 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
First, God Himself doesn't "hate" people or "detest" them!
How do I know?
Jesus is part of God, a "section" if you will so obviously a section can't argue (war) within itself w/o destroying the whole, right? - This analogy was used when Jesus was accused of being satan able to remove his own demons!
Jesus came to Earth to save ALL lost souls right? Ohter than the Phairsees and some proud arrogant men who directly refused him point blank who did He ever turn away?
Jesus (and God, of course) ALWAYS (except for Judas Iscariot, who betrayed Jesus) seperates the man (person) from their sin.
Remember the adulterous woman? Go and sin no more!
The SIN, not the sinner o.k.?
2006-09-13 05:21:21 · answer #8 · answered by John F 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Firstly, I would object to the use of the word 'mythology'. But that's a discussion for another day...
God doesn't hate homosexuals. He hates the homosexual acts they do. The only person God really hates is Satan. It is entirely possible for a homosexual person to be Christian, they just can't practise homosexuality.
2006-09-13 05:21:33 · answer #9 · answered by Epitome_inc 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because different translations sometimes have small differences based on the fact that many words we use today, meant different things 400 yrs ago. You shouldn't refer to it as mythology though, as that makes you look as though you are trying to belittle others and their beliefs.
2006-09-13 05:18:33 · answer #10 · answered by Vincent Valentine 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋