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The word 'Gospel' is supposed to mean 'beyond question'.
What were jesus last words?
Where were the disciples to meet him after the ressurection?

2006-09-13 03:24:25 · 23 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

23 answers

Gospels - although base in a factual story, are fictional. The bible was written by men to control men. If you look to that book for truth, you will find yourself living a lie.

2006-09-13 03:30:28 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 4

Definition of gospel from the Oxford english Dictionary

• noun
1 the teachings of Christ.
2 (Gospel) the record of Christ’s life and teaching in the first four books of the New Testament.
3 (Gospel) each of these books.
4 (also gospel truth) something absolutely true.
5 (also gospel music) a fervent style of black American evangelical religious singing.

So, Gospel on its own DOES NOT mean "good news"

the problem is that all 4 (and a few more that got lost or banned) gospels were written by different people, at least 50 years after JCs execution. As was the style of the time, embellishments crept in where the author thought it would make more of an impression on his readers.
The probable truth is that little in any of the gospels ever happened. They just make good stories. In the early years after the execution though, people were generally uneducated and would believe anything they were told by a priest (much like today in churches, mosques etc.). The priesthood were careful to preserve these beliefs as they created the base for their continued employment. - Today, we call it "the gravy train". They even killed off anyone who dared to disagree, preferably BEFORE the public got convinced.
As for the disciples meeting him, they were more likely to be running as hard as possible to try to escape the, by now, somewhat irate Romans.

2006-09-13 23:04:56 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

enable me ask you some thing. lets say you asked 4 newshounds to furnish a 20 internet site account of 9/11. so that then you definately acquire those records and study by them individually. i visit guess you a million million USD that each might have a distinctive attitude to this experience, yet nonetheless the tale will learn. So do they contradict one yet another? i'm specific you will say No, for all they're doing is giving an account from their very own very own experience. Likewise the gospels are an identical. Now the question, why can no longer people study and comprehend the Bible? Your question verifies this. it rather is with the aid of fact God forbids this, for He purely enables the particularly born lower back people who've met the gospel of the water and the spirit (John 3:5), and function believed in it to open up its secrets and techniques. I actual have a loose e book for you, basically mail me.

2016-11-07 05:56:01 · answer #3 · answered by sikorski 4 · 0 0

I know a lot of this has been said before, but Gospel means good news, not "beyond question". You also fail, as many have before you, to point out any significant discrepancies (which you call contradictions) between the Gospel accounts.

These are really important issues and I would encourage you to look into them further. Sounds like you've made a start.

2006-09-13 09:31:21 · answer #4 · answered by Jaydee 2 · 0 0

Gospel comes from the Greek word evangelio which means Good News.

Satan is nothing but bad news and tries to confuse the people into believing that the Gospels were bogus, etc.

2006-09-13 10:12:30 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Gospels were all written long after Jesus died, and usually after the disciples themselves died, by people who followed the teachings and traditions of that apostle. If you will notice, they are titled "The Gospel ACCORDING TO ________". They didn't mean that that apostle wrote the words down themselves; they were written years afterward by followers of each disciple, and some details got jumbled up, like playing telephone. Also, some apostles may have been witness to different miracles, or heard about some second-hand.

2006-09-13 03:48:24 · answer #6 · answered by cross-stitch kelly 7 · 1 0

The idea that the Bible cannot be viewed as an accurate historical source is absurd. Never has archaelogy uncovered anything that goes aganist what is written in the Bible. In fact, the oposite is true. For those who would say the Bible is not the Word of God, or that the Bible contains numerous errors I would say this: Paul could say in 2nd Timothy 3:16, "All Scripture is given by inspiration of God." That's the Greek word, "theopneustos" meaning "God-Breathed." Every single word was given from God to 40 different men, and 2nd Peter 1:21 adds: "for no prophecy was ever made by an act of human will, but men moved by the Holy Spirit spoke from God." Now that was the Old Testament. The New Testament wasn't in existence when Paul used these verses. He was telling the churches in his letters what had happened in the past, but in John 16:12-13, Jesus talked about the coming of the New Testament. He says, "I have many more things to say to you, but you cannot bear them now. But when He, the Spirit of Truth, comes, He will guide you into all the truth; for He will not speak on His own initiative, but whatever He hears, He will speak; and He will disclose to you what is to come."
That's the New Testamant. And we can say with John 17:17, "Your Word is Truth." Today, we have 66 books written by 40 different individuals on 3 continents covering a period of 1,500 years and there's not one mistake, regardless of what some of the critics say. They haven't studied God's Word enough to know the truth. Among the writers we had kings, poets, philosophers, prophets, scholars and fisherman. And I want you to know we have all of the Word of God today. Someone says, "Yes, but we don't have the original manuscripts" Who said so?
We have copies totalling 24,800. Now, how do we know that they're right? Well, if you take 20 items and you compare them and 19 state one thing and one doesn't, then the one is in error. We've got 24,800 manuscripts that exist today to compare one against another and we have another 80,000 quotations from the church fathers, enough to put the entire Bible together with the exception of 11 verses. Take the 80,000 quotations from the church fathers and the 24,800 manuscripts for a total of 104,800 and you have all of God's Word dozens and hundreds of times. This is so because God's Word is literally flawless. After computers have compared millions, or even billions, of letters in analyzing the 104,800 manuscripts the texts are basically flawless. So, don't listen to the critics.

2006-09-13 03:32:29 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

NOPE! Gospel translates "good news!"
HIS last words when! on the cross or at ascension?
In Jerusalem He would come to them!
What contradiction! Note that four journalists today do not report on a subject in the same manner,but in their own style/wit . Why? To report verbatim is Boring so the first one finished gets recorded only.

2006-09-13 03:36:35 · answer #8 · answered by K9 4 · 1 0

1) The word translated as "gospel" in the NT is the Greek word "euaggelion," meaning "good or glad tidings." It does not mean "beyond question," although the truth of the Gospel is beyond question.

2) Be more specific: before He died and was resurrected, or before He ascended to Heaven?

3) Again, be more specific and I will answer.

Peace.

2006-09-13 03:30:15 · answer #9 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 2 0

The Gospels appear to contradict each other becuase they were written for different audiences. One of the Gospels was written for the Jews, one was written for Gentiles, one was written for Jewish converts to Christianity and one was written to members of the established Christian community.

The details are different because a Jew and gentile would see the same event a little differently based on their religious background.

The most obvious difference is in the geneologies in two of the Gospels. In the Gospel that was written to the jews, the author traces Jesus' geneology back to Abraham, the father of the Jewish faith. This was done to establish Jesus' place in Jewish history.

In the Gospel written to the Gentiles, Jesus' ancestry is traced back to Adam to show Jesus' place in the history of all mankind.

2006-09-13 03:48:27 · answer #10 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 1 1

the order of the books accepted after the council of Nicea are misplaced, not by chronology but by the books left after the editor's cut of what fit and what didn't

the difference from Mark to John shows evolution, as none with the name actually wrote in person, but was later told by members of the telephone game, that by the time of the council, one of many messiahs became the Annointed One and a man/god, and the books attributed to John resemble gnosticm more than the Nazarene texts

we see the greatness of a social liberal, Jesus, a person being re wrote to be perfect without ever harming a flea and yet by simply breathing he was killing germs and bacteria. Now people want to ascribe greatness to a normal person who actually challenged the modern system.

we can do the same, many were killed though.. now we face political assasination today if we stand up for change or justice

2006-09-13 03:32:20 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1 2

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