please help me.
2006-09-12 17:10:08 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Politics & Government ➔ Civic Participation
Colonial America was under British law, so someone had to be a landowner to claim rights. That followed into the early republic as well
2006-09-12 17:14:09 · answer #1 · answered by roamin70 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Usually only white male landowners had power, and even then, some colonies had restrictions on what religious/ethnic background you were. For example, a Catholic German wouldn't expect to receive "civil rights" from the Puritans of the Massachusetts Bay Colony. Maryland was started initially as a Catholic colony, and Pennsylvania was started by Quakers. Most of the early settlers(late 1600s-early 1700s) to the Southern colonies were men, who were trying to stake their fortune in the abundant resources of that area, so they prob. had fewer restrictions, yet at the same time, they couldn't expect to see any organized gov't protecting their rights
2006-09-13 00:21:36 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Because they lived 3000 miles away from England and the King didn't give a **** about them.
2006-09-13 00:14:21 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
You had to be a white land-owning male.
2006-09-13 00:15:22 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
A Kig was sitting on us, and he wouldn't move off.
2006-09-16 00:11:21 · answer #5 · answered by Mr.Been there 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋