Can someone explain how this sentence is grammatically correct:
"The nasty comments she makes speaks to her immaturity"
Why does 'speaks to' replace 'speaks of'?
2006-09-12 03:05:01 · 12 answers · asked by Tweet 2 in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
English as we learned it in school - in the olden days - is not the same English the students learn in school today!@
2006-09-12 03:15:31 · answer #1 · answered by nswblue 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Well, it's (sorta) noun verb preposition noun very similar to "she speaks to the boy". I don't think that it's a grammatical question, but a semantics question, that is to say the syntax or grammar is correct, but the meaning or connotation is what causes the question.
If "of" was used in the sentence it would mean "about" while "to" used in the sentence roughly means "points out" or "direction" similar to "speak to the point".
2006-09-12 03:21:40 · answer #2 · answered by Pirate AM™ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
THE WORD 'comments" is plural
therefore: The nasty comments she makes speaks(again plural)of her immaturity.
Secondly, immaturity is not a person , to be addressed 'TO'
Did you understand?
2006-09-12 03:15:33 · answer #3 · answered by chandrasanyal 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the correct sentence is" the nasty comments she makes speak of her immaturity"
2006-09-12 03:13:09 · answer #4 · answered by vani3624 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
As far as I know, the sentence is correct. "To speak to" here means "to indicate" or "to signal":
The nasty comments she makes indicate/signal her immaturity.
I think it'd be also ok to say: The nasty comments she makes speak of her immaturity.
But the meaning is slightly different: "to speak of" is "to reflect".
The nasty comments ... reflect her immaturity.
2006-09-12 03:26:18 · answer #5 · answered by JC 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is correctly pointed out that the verb required with the plural "comments" is "speak", not "speaks". The phrase "speak to" is used the same way as "point to", not "talk to". Its context in this usage is one of indication, not speech.
"The nasty comments she makes speak to her immaturity" is correct.
2006-09-12 03:26:07 · answer #6 · answered by Renaissance Man 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I agree, "speaks of" sounds proper. Speaks to implies the comments are directed at someone; whereas, speaks of describes the object.
2006-09-12 03:13:03 · answer #7 · answered by Laughing Libra 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
"Speaks to" suggests that it is representative of her immaturity, whereas "speaks of" would suggest something more direct, as in "When hearing of her nasty comments Gerry often speaks of her immaturity."
I think the difference lies in that "speaks of" would pertain to her actions whereas "speaks to" would pertain to words actually spoken about her.
In this case it should be the singular "speak to" rather than the plural "speaks to" though.
That's my interpretation, anyway!
2006-09-12 03:14:20 · answer #8 · answered by LindaLou 7 · 1⤊ 0⤋
I dont know, 'speaks of' sounds logical with the sentence to me.
2006-09-12 03:08:50 · answer #9 · answered by black_d0ll 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
i would say "speaks to" would be replaced with "explains, or "contributes to"...basically its someone trying to sound grammatical but its not
2006-09-12 03:11:29 · answer #10 · answered by *<3_Gizmo* 6 · 1⤊ 2⤋