Why English language not decide the sex for addressee when talk to him/her?

Question

I mean other languages decide the addressee like Arabic, Not "You" word like English.

Thanks.

I not mean this "Did I do that ?".!

Answer 1

HUH?

She, Her, Mrs., Miss, Girl, Woman, Female, Gal, Lass

He, His, Mister, Boy, Man, Male, Lad, Guy

Answer 2

We have Sir and Mister for men, Miss and Missus for women. But these are more titles than anything. I guess the main reason is that in the west women and men are considered equal partners in life. I understand your question. In Thailand they have the same thing for example, a man would call another man KOP which is like our 'sir' but a woman would call the same man KAW still meaning 'sir'. I think it is still based on how a society views its women, as equals or as seperate.

Answer 3

To be clear, I think we're talking about the second person pronoun.

I know this is shared with french, certainly, which uses 'Tu/Vous' for singular and plural second person, with no gender. (English used to distinguish between singular and plural 'Thou/You', but the less formal singular was dropped from use). Perhaps it is common to other latin languages? old german?

I'll ask another question of the original poster. Does arabic include gender in the 'first person' prounoun? In English the first person pronounces I/Me/We/Us are also without specified gender. Does arabic specify gender for the first person (self) as well as second person (person/people being addressed) forms?

I wouldn't get carried away with this implying 'equality' in the west. The lack of gender information in 'you' but inclusion of gender in 'him/her' certainly dates back to women being treated as property in most european countries.

Answer 4

I always wonder for this, but I think it's not effect the language.