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Yes it does!

1. 0/0 = 32
2. 0 = 32 * 0

3. BOOYAH!

2006-09-11 10:31:06 · 9 answers · asked by Anonymous in Science & Mathematics Mathematics

9 answers

there are some "indeterminate" forms in arithmetics

0/0, infinity/infinity are clearly indeterminate

consider: a * b = x We can say: a = x/b

Using same logic, 32 * 0 = 0 so 32 = 0/0

or, 42 * 0 = 0 so 42 = 0/0

in fact, 0/0 can mean anything...hence it is 'indeterminate'

consider this: 4 * 0 = 5 * 0, right?
now cancelling common terms on both sides, we get 4=5 !

this fallacy rises from the fact that we could not cancel zeros... here, rearranging the terms we get 4/5 = 0/0

got right?

2006-09-11 10:55:58 · answer #1 · answered by m s 3 · 1 0

By the same logic, you could make 0/0 be any number you want. That's why 0/0 is considered to be undefined. Indeed, any division by zero is undefined.

2006-09-11 10:34:51 · answer #2 · answered by Bramblyspam 7 · 2 0

no..
if 0 = 32 * 0... then you already have 32 * 0 and that's 0.. you have to simplify that side and yeah..

2006-09-11 10:33:49 · answer #3 · answered by spoof ♫♪ 7 · 0 2

It equals anything you want it to. You can even get it to equal 0/0.

2006-09-11 10:36:46 · answer #4 · answered by Pepsi 4 · 0 1

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2016-11-07 03:10:34 · answer #5 · answered by ? 4 · 0 0

Dividing by zero is an undefined operation. You just can't do it.

2006-09-11 10:32:31 · answer #6 · answered by maegical 4 · 1 1

Step one is wrong.
If you start with a false premise, you can deduce ANYTHING.

2006-09-11 11:48:24 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

Get an education...

2006-09-11 11:44:32 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

You can't divide by zero!!!!

2006-09-11 10:34:54 · answer #9 · answered by whatthe 3 · 1 1

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