2006-09-11 09:29:16 · 7 answers · asked by Apollo 2 in Science & Mathematics ➔ Mathematics
For those of you saying "who?" - Pareto is also known as the 80-20 principal which states that in a given situation, the minority affects the majority to a ratio of 80/20. The usually quoted reference is that 20% of the world's population owns 80% of the world's wealth, but it has become a bit of a generalisation for any comparison =- eg: 20% of your job takes 80% of your working day. There is no real statistical evidence for this at all - it's just a general rule of thumb and shouldn't be applied strictly. It's more to make a point than based on a specific mathematical formula.
2006-09-11 11:30:50 · answer #1 · answered by kingofclubs_uk 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Only for about 80% of the time. Or could it be 20% of the time.
2006-09-11 09:31:50 · answer #2 · answered by ? 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No, I've always been a bit skeptical about it. Some folk quote it as gospel, but I've never really seen the stats to back it up.
2006-09-11 09:31:11 · answer #3 · answered by Avondrow 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
heck yea who is pareto
2006-09-11 09:31:30 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No, only about 80% of everything.
2006-09-11 09:30:24 · answer #5 · answered by Iridium190 5 · 2⤊ 0⤋
In a capitalist society, I'd say absolutely.
2006-09-11 09:32:18 · answer #6 · answered by RockC 2 · 0⤊ 1⤋
- Who?
2006-09-11 09:30:10 · answer #7 · answered by IMHO 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋