2006-09-11 04:28:09 · 8 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Words & Wordplay
It's definitely not the rule (see previous answer). I think that this has everything to do with the genes and types of proteins that are coded for. There's probably some dominance of certain genes or dilution of the effects of others depending upon how parents' genes combine and that produces a certain hair texture. Also, some hair textures and skin colours "travel" together and may be found together often (e.g., blonde nordic people), but this is hardly the rule.There are often exceptions, especially when one is of multiracial heritage. My two cents!
2006-09-11 05:39:04 · answer #1 · answered by semper 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I am not black and I have curly hair!@
2006-09-11 04:37:06 · answer #2 · answered by nswblue 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
FIRST OFF YOU SHOULD CONSIDER THEIR HERITAGE NOT THEIR COLOR. I'M FRENCH WITH CURLY HAIR BUT MY SKIN APPEARS LIGHT BROWN OR BLACK AS SOCIETY WOULD PUT IT. MY BEST FRIEND IS JAMAICAN AND HER HAIR IS CURLY, HER SKIN ALSO APPEARS BLACK. EVERY ONE HAS A CURL PATTERN TO THEIR HAIR WHICH EXPLAINS THE DIFFERENT TEXTURES TO "HUMAN HAIR". IF YOU HAVE NO CURL TO YOUR HAIR, THE CURL PATTERN IS ZERO.
2006-09-11 09:20:36 · answer #3 · answered by BLady2009 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
because Look them with this hair very nice and suitable
2006-09-11 04:33:52 · answer #4 · answered by [B]lack [R]ose 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Ive always wondered why Indian people don't.
2006-09-11 04:33:33 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
maybe for the same reason i have frizzy hair and im mexican.... its just the way it is.
2006-09-11 04:34:10 · answer #6 · answered by Lipstick 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
might be a co inscidence .
2006-09-11 04:36:31 · answer #7 · answered by veerabhadrasarma m 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
genetics.
2006-09-14 01:52:05 · answer #8 · answered by sunshine 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋