Say, for example, regarding muslim and jewish communities in the french Republic- where in accordance with the 'republican model' all people are equal regardless of religion- thus banning the 'foulard' and other religous attire from schools.
2006-09-11 03:52:52 · 6 answers · asked by pseudoname 3 in Politics & Government ➔ Law & Ethics
Inherently, no. It is only a right if guaranteed by some law.
So, in the US, the 1st Amendment extends these protections againt government censorship. But unless the country in question had similar protections enacted as law, then there is no cause of action.
2006-09-11 06:40:40 · answer #1 · answered by coragryph 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Religion is something to be practised in private or a building specifically designated for that religion. In today's society bringing religion into the public is just BEGGING for resentment.
People complain about being discriminated, but if you wear things that allow people to easily identify you with a particular group, don't get offended if someone identifies you as "the guy wearing the funny little hat", "that one there with the large cross around her neck", "the guy wearing the turban", or "the woman with the big red dot of her forehead".
Even though it is a big part of the culture... Being Identified by what you're wearing even if the person simply calls you "that jewish guy" because they saw the hat it is not racism. Its human nature. It would be the same if you were wearing a big foam finger from a NY Rangers hockey game someone calling you "That Rangers fan". If its well known the person saying it is not a Rangers fan it is considered a bias. Its really over sensitive.
2006-09-11 11:16:42 · answer #2 · answered by Ashly 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Actually, there is no such thing as a "natural" right. The notion of "rights" in a civil society has proven itself to be an excellent model, in accordance with the evolutionary requirements of society, and societies based on such models have flourished. I continue to marvel at the masterly craftsmanship of the US Constitution in drawing lines between what the government can do and what the citizens can do.
2006-09-11 11:21:38 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
It is guaranteed in our First Amendment. However, the French are a different story. Their "republican" model extends as far as their socialist tendencies. Their history on religious freedom is one that makes Saudi Arabia look pretty fair. The French fear religion like Hitler did. They took it out of power in the Revolution and have been cold ever since.
2006-09-11 11:10:06 · answer #4 · answered by jwr200218 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I think so. I don't think any religious expression should be imposed or restricted by the government.
2006-09-11 10:56:45 · answer #5 · answered by Chris D 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Hopefully yes, as long as it doesn't include IEDs...
2006-09-11 10:59:31 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋