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in japan its tradition to remove footwear before entering the house..but what does a burglar do when he burgles it?does he remove his footwear?

2006-09-09 07:55:49 · 27 answers · asked by hondanut 4 in Education & Reference Other - Education

27 answers

It depends on what he's wearing. The tradition of removing shoes was because of the fact that the Japanese wear a traditional kind of wooden sandals called Geta. They tend to be very noisy to wear on the hardwood floors of a traditional Japanese house: thus they removed their shoes. A burglar wouldn't wear this kind of shoes since they are not the most practical for running. just as any old burglar he'll wear sneakers easy, light and not too noisy. Chances are he'll leave them on. In the olden days the Ninja actually moved around on their Tabi or socks.

2006-09-09 08:10:22 · answer #1 · answered by peter gunn 7 · 0 0

If one has shoes on before entering the house, detectives can get a copy of the bottom of his shoe print from the ground, that is if there is dirt. If he enters your house and takes the time to remove or put his shoes back on, he will only delay his timing to make a quick get away, and possibly get caught. Why would he take off his shoes? He would be a stupid. If someone would break the law and enter a house illegally, then they would also break the tradition of taking of his shoes. At any rate if you did have a burglar, I hope he would get caught regardless. Better burlarize your home and have security cameras.

2006-09-09 08:05:24 · answer #2 · answered by bobbie e 3 · 0 0

In order for a burglar to remove his footwear he would have to either know he was in a Japanese house(other than being in Japan) and respect the fact. Normally a burlgar doesn't respect anyone, so no he wouldn't.

2006-09-09 08:07:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

There are two burglary offences in England and Wales. The first is entering a building as a trespasser with intent to do various offences and the second is carrying out the offence intended (although note that criminal damage is not in 9(1)(b) but is in 9(1)(a)).

Section 9 (1) Theft Act 1968:
A person is guilty of burglary if
(a) he enters a building or part of a building as a trespasser with intent to commit any such offence as is mentioned in subsection 2 (which are theft from the building or part building, inflicting on any person therein grevious bodily harm, raping any person therein* and doing unlawful damage to the building or anything therein)
(b) [having done 9(1)(a)] he steals or attempts to steal anything in that building or that part of it or inflicts or attempts to inflict on any person therein any grevious bodily harm.

*rape is no longer in section 9 of the Theft Act as it is now covered by newer sexual offences legislation

2006-09-09 08:11:29 · answer #4 · answered by quierounvaquero 4 · 0 0

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2015-01-25 10:53:48 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The burglar breaks and enters a dwelling or close with intent to commit a crime therein.

2006-09-09 08:02:18 · answer #6 · answered by OldGringo 7 · 0 0

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2016-02-10 17:09:53 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

He gains unauthorised access to properties and steals things. He is much more likely to keep his footwear on, to avoid leaving any DNA traces.

2006-09-09 08:03:43 · answer #8 · answered by Robert C 5 · 0 0

depends on whether he is a japanese burglar or a polite burglar
(but it is very unlikely that someone robbing a house is going to care about

2006-09-09 07:59:08 · answer #9 · answered by kickerboy61 2 · 2 0

If he doesn't respect the homeowners enough to ask before taking their belongings, he probably doesn't respect the house enough to remove his shoes.

2006-09-09 08:02:12 · answer #10 · answered by Penelope's Mom 3 · 1 0

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