If Jews were originally Semitic or Middle Eastern, and they lived in Europe for a couple thousand years, that means they must have intermingled with local populations, right? This would account for blonde hair, green, blue eyes, straight hair, etc., anything not considered "middle eastern", that must be the European genetic influence? So.....conversely wouldn't that mean that many European (esp Germans probably) have some Jewish ancestors too far back to trace? great great great great grandaparents or something? Isn't that statistically necessary?
2006-09-08 13:13:32 · 9 answers · asked by isabella e 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
1) No.
2) Not necessarily, but likely.
3) You are assuming Middle Easterners always looked the way they look now. That's not a valid assumption.
4) It's possible.
5) No.
2006-09-08 13:18:22 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, you probably have a point but there is more to it than that. Central and southern Europe has been the stage of many conquests throughout the ages. Romans, Huns, Viking, etc. Some of these conquerors came from the east, Attila the Hun, and others from the south or near east. Except for portions of isolated areas, like northern Finland or Norway, nearly all of Europe has been a "melting pot" for thousands of years. Afterall, conquerors usually hang around for awhile and there certainly must be social interaction.
2006-09-08 20:24:19 · answer #2 · answered by jack w 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Jews can be anything we learned in the medical journal.
Europeans are usually type A blood.
Africans are usually Type B
The Indian or semitic tribe is usually type 0 blood.
There is black jews and white jews and hispanic looking jews.
They are hard to tell and the blood type can be about anything.
Closer to the arab then any other type. they are a form of Arabian. They mixed a lot with Egyptians. and some african tribes. Some white European tribes. So they are a real mixture.
They are hard to pin point into anyone particular race.
2006-09-08 20:20:02 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
They found one of the lost tribes in China, so hey, they got around. During the inquisition, a lot of Jews "converted", and a lot of them simply pretended to not be Jewish and meshed into the population. A lot of us probably have some Jewish dna.
2006-09-08 20:37:56 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋
Could be, but during the Nazi era, Germans hat to trace back their ancestry and Jewish people in general did not marry gentiles. It's against their beliefs, because Judaism is not a religion but a way of life.
2006-09-08 20:20:42 · answer #5 · answered by Mightymo 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
genetically we are all a bit of most things. If life begun in Africa we would all have a small part of African in us. I am part French, but so far back it has no real beaing - it was 1750! Its all watered down somewhat. i am guessing that within 4 generations I would be blood related to someone of most religious denominations and possible a few different races too.
2006-09-08 20:22:15 · answer #6 · answered by marc k 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No it just means many Jews have Jewish influence
2006-09-11 19:38:22 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
No, not at all. Jews make up a smidgeon of the population and the odds of that are illogical.
Jews are still considered Semetic, and many look like it. Look at Elliot Gould, Barbara Streisand and many others. Look at Jeff Goldblum, very semetic looking.
You are barking up a crooked tree!
2006-09-08 20:21:11 · answer #8 · answered by TG Special 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Pretty much everyone in Spain today has some Jewish ancesters somewhere down the line.
2006-09-11 22:43:24 · answer #9 · answered by mo mosh 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋