2006-09-08 03:22:15 · 6 answers · asked by rachael_4_16 1 in Food & Drink ➔ Other - Food & Drink
I think others have given you the answer you're looking for.
However, in truth: it depends on how full the bottle is. (You didn't say.)
As such, this represents a closed data set of discrete units (1 molecule vs enough molecules to fill it to capacity). Between these two discrete points there are many different volumes. Some people would argue that there are an infinite number of volumes because between two finite points, there are an infinite number of points (decimals are infinite). However, this isn't really true with fluid. Fluid is made of discrete molecules. You don't get fluid in fractions. (If you broke a fluid molecule into fractions, you'd get elemental gases -- which some fluids can give you. Pepsi gives it to me... Go Coke!)
So while the true answer to your question is not nearly infinite (and if you think about it, nothing can be "nearly infinite"), it depends on how full the 1 liter bottle is -- ie empty vs half-full vs the fluid is at the fill line or the brim, etc.
Wow. That was a complete waste of time wasn't it?
Sorry, sometimes I know I'm just entertaining myself.
2006-09-08 03:49:12 · answer #1 · answered by Ignoramus 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
a little more than 32 oz.
2006-09-08 10:24:46 · answer #2 · answered by Sugar Pie 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
32 oz. to a litre.
2006-09-08 10:24:15 · answer #3 · answered by o0_ithilwen_0o 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
http://www.meal365.com/
2006-09-08 10:29:14 · answer #4 · answered by china f 1 · 0⤊ 0⤋
33.814023
Go to this site for more conversions:
http://www.digitaldutch.com/unitconverter/
2006-09-08 10:28:29 · answer #5 · answered by cbk84 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
33.8
2006-09-08 10:24:37 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋