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2006-09-06 19:56:45 · 17 answers · asked by kokubenji 3 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

17 answers

If He had a last name it could possibly have been:

Yeshua (Jesus) Ben Yosef (Son of Joseph)

2006-09-06 20:01:56 · answer #1 · answered by Adyghe Ha'Yapheh-Phiyah 6 · 0 0

Jesus is derived from the Latin Iesus, which in turn comes from the Greek. The earliest use of Iēsoûs is found in the Septuagint, where it is used to transliterate the Hebrew name Yehoshua (יהושע - known in English as Joshua), and also Yeshua (ישוע); the latter is used in the Hebrew Bible either as short form or an Aramaic equivalent of Yeshoshua. Yeshoshua means the Lord is salvation (literally Yahweh saves), while Yeshua means salvation.

Given the fact that this person's role in history places him in Roman controlled Arabia, it is difficult to say with certainty which naming conventions would have applied.

Roman naming conventions would have been; the praenomen (given name), nomen gentile (name of the gens or clan) and cognomen (belonging to a family within the gens).

Arabian naming conventions would have been far more intricate. The name would have included some of (while not necessarily all) these elements; Kunya, ism, Nasab, Laqab, and Nisba. (See the below link for more details).

Additionally, there is a record of the family of "jesus" spending time in Egypt, and the Nasorean sect to which "jesus" is associated had quite a few influences from Egyptian sources, so "jesus" could have had an Egyptian style name by which he was known.

2006-09-06 20:25:51 · answer #2 · answered by Jim T 6 · 0 0

No. In ancient Judea, most people didn't have what we think of as last names. People were known by their given name followed by the name of their father or the town they were from in order to keep all the Thomas's, Jesus's (yes, other people back then were named Jesus too, you'll find mention of some in Josephus' books) and John's all straight.

Jesus has several names. He is the messiah, the Son of Man, the Word, the Lamb, the Prince of Peace etc. You'll find all His names in the New Testament.

2006-09-06 20:07:56 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Jesus of Nazareth, son of Joseph, of the house of David.

2006-09-06 20:04:44 · answer #4 · answered by flugelberry 4 · 0 0

Smith ;o)

seriously though...

People didn't use surnames then. People were identified by their lineage (son of Joseph) or town of origin (of Galelee, of Nazareth, etc).

Jesus is the first name; Christ is a title, not a name ( given by the greeks long after his death)

So literally when we say "Jesus of Nazareth" we are stating his full name (or rather its literal translation) - "Of Nazareth" is as close to his surname that you will get.

2006-09-06 20:00:55 · answer #5 · answered by gromitski 5 · 1 1

They didn't use last names like we do back then. They used whereever you came from, your job position, or something linked to you for identification. Hence Jesus, of Nazareth.

Mind you others did being to have "last names" Judas Iscariot

2006-09-06 20:04:33 · answer #6 · answered by C 2 · 0 0

Nazareth was his last name

2006-09-06 19:58:24 · answer #7 · answered by A.B. Dobe 2 · 0 1

No, Jesus son of Joseph the Carpenter.

2006-09-06 19:58:44 · answer #8 · answered by CHS 2 · 0 0

Mr. Jesus O'Nazareth.

2006-09-06 20:01:49 · answer #9 · answered by Chuck Dhue 4 · 0 1

In those days, the place you came from was your "last name".

2006-09-07 02:49:28 · answer #10 · answered by Alexander Shannon 5 · 0 0

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