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Heres why the passage cant be referring to Israel
http://www.chaim.org/servant.htm

the suffering servant
http://www.chaim.org/servant.htm

2006-09-06 14:33:17 · 7 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

7 answers

First off, let's get off on the right foot. You should caveat your question by telling people your links are to a church dedicated to proselytizing to Jews, and therefore are no basis for an open discussion.

That being said, yes I have read Isaiah 53 and do not find it refers to Jesus. First off, the entire section is past tense. It speaks about a man that has already existed at the time of the writing. Secondly, it says the man is "crushed by disease" (Isaiah 53:10)
Moreover you are missing the entire context to which Isaiah 53 belongs. The previous chapters of Isaiah call for Israel to awaken and remember to Lord, to return to His laws and "clothe yourself in splendor, Put on your robes of majesty...Arise shake off the dust, Sit on your throne of Jerusalem, Leace the bonds from your neck" (Isaiah 52) as well as the folowing chapters calling for the same. Isaiah calls people to return to the Lord's laws for HaShem has not left them. But later Isaiah (surely a firebrand for his time) decends into a diatribe against the people he's trying to bring back into the law.

All of my quotes are from the 1985 JPS translation.

I would rather enjoy discussing this with you had you been honest about where you were getting your information. I would have you know I have had this discussion many times. My two best friends in high school were Roman Catholic and Mormon, repectively. I have never had a better, open discussion then with these two scholars.

2006-09-06 15:17:08 · answer #1 · answered by mindar76 2 · 0 0

Hi,

I highly recommend the many essays at http://www.messiahtruth.com/ that address Isaiah 53.

For the record, the missionary tactic of "disproving" that it is referring to Israel is missing a basic point in logic.
Suppose for a moment that it does not refer to Israel. That, in of itself, does not prove that it is about Jesus.

Another thing to consider (written about more completely in one of the essays):
Basic Christian beleif says that Jesus died for the sins of mankind. In other words, its his death that effects the anotnement. However, according to Christological readings (which are actually a mis-reading) of Isaiah 53 the verse that allegedly points to this concept is of a "suffering servant". But it speaks nothing of dying.

2006-09-07 19:42:22 · answer #2 · answered by BMCR 7 · 0 0

I am not Jewish, I am Christian. I had read Isaiah 53 about the Suffering Servant and I believe that it describes Jesus and his life story very well.

2006-09-06 21:40:57 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

You're trying to convert us Jews, aren't you?

2006-09-06 21:35:54 · answer #4 · answered by Sooku 2 · 0 0

this question has already been satisfactorily answer by thousands of jews.

http://home.att.net/~fiddlerzvi/Isaiah53.html

2006-09-06 21:54:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

never read it i'm terrible at bieng jew

2006-09-06 21:38:33 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

Yeah, I read it. So?

2006-09-07 06:52:03 · answer #7 · answered by yotg 6 · 0 0

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