My wife was the registered owner. She had to provide an SR 22 when she got her license back 2 yrs. ago. We recently bought another car and informed our ins. carrier that we had sold one and bought one. We then received a letter stating that since an SR 22 was reported on this policy, we have to provide proof of sale on the first auto. Can they do that?
2006-09-06 11:09:32 · 6 answers · asked by Anonymous in Cars & Transportation ➔ Insurance & Registration
Yes, it seems so, as they had probably lost the paper work, or they want to see that the vehicle is actually sold.
2006-09-06 11:11:34 · answer #1 · answered by Silverstang 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, with SR-22 filings. The SR-22 filing is a certification from the insurance company that ALL owned vehicles are covered by insurance. The only way to remove the vehicle from the policy is to provide proof of sale of the vehicle.
2006-09-06 12:21:35 · answer #2 · answered by Bostonian In MO 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
I believe in California that the insurance company does have that power. It has to tell the state that the car is no longer insured by them and with out the proof of sale the state will stop the car if it sees it on the road because they may think you still own it.Even though you should have sent in the copy to the state as I understand it the sr22 form means the insurance company has to have a copy to give the state.
2006-09-06 11:33:15 · answer #3 · answered by uthockey32 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
At - INSURECOMPARECAR.information- you are able to learn loose rates RE Arizona demands evidence of automobile insurance in case you're stopped, why is that different than evidence of citizenship? #EANF#
2016-12-12 03:47:50 · answer #4 · answered by tollefson 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes
2006-09-06 15:36:15 · answer #5 · answered by Chris 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, they can.
2006-09-06 11:11:12 · answer #6 · answered by ? 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋