2006-09-06 08:01:10 · 11 answers · asked by soulsista 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
yes, definitely
2006-09-06 08:02:23 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
No. While you might have logical reason for discriminating, the two aren't exchangeable; e.g., you can be a racist (one that discriminates because of race,) but that's clearly without logic. Another example would be to say that you have a discriminating taste of wine, there's nothing logical about whether you prefer white or red.
2006-09-06 08:07:19 · answer #2 · answered by Scott K 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Not necessarily. One might be discriminating in one's evaluation of logical arguments, but the two are not synonyms.
2006-09-06 08:20:15 · answer #3 · answered by lcraesharbor 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No. Discriminating means that someone compares their options, it doesn't specify that any logic is used when choosing one thing over another.
2006-09-06 08:08:12 · answer #4 · answered by Caroline 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Is this a long way of saying that the Gospel is discriminating?
2006-09-06 08:08:37 · answer #5 · answered by XYZ 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Well, discriminating in the sense of analytical, yes. Not discriminating in the sense of bias or prejudice.
2006-09-06 08:08:50 · answer #6 · answered by banjuja58 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What do u mean, I didn't undertand.
2006-09-06 08:02:55 · answer #7 · answered by V 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-09-06 08:03:46 · answer #8 · answered by metamorphosisa 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
No
2006-09-06 08:02:52 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
no, i dont see how
2006-09-06 08:04:24 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋