i've read somewhere that Mary was of a prominent jewish family and that she was married to one of Herods' sons.
2006-09-06 01:20:55 · 14 answers · asked by nightangel008 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Her linage is more interesting than that of Joseph's
She is of the King line of David, and the High Priest line of Arron!
Which would make Christ not only King but High Priest of Israel on the order of Melchizedek
2006-09-06 05:14:24 · answer #1 · answered by Grandreal 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary's lineage is given in Luke 3:23-38, which indicates her father was Heli (this is NOT Joseph's lineage, which is given in Matthew. Thanks to mistranslation, many people, like "smorbificant" who posted above do not understand this. You can read about this subject here: http://www.messiahnj.org/af-throne.htm ). Mary was a direct decendent of David. Her immediate family was not prominent (i.e. wealthy); otherwise, she would not have had to offer the two doves in the Temple following Jesus' birth, which was required from poor women, as stated at Leviticus 12:8. Instead, had she come from a prominent family, they would have provided the "better" offerings of a lamb and a pigeon, as stated at Lev. 12:6.
Mary was never married prior to becoming betrothed to Joseph; if she had been, she would not have been a virgin.
I hope this helps. Peace.
2006-09-06 01:34:06 · answer #2 · answered by Suzanne: YPA 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Mary was Jewish, there's no doubt about that. It's doubtful her family was prominent. Only the Pharisees were "prominent" at that time.
Suggesting that she was married to one of Herod's sons leads me to believe that the person suggesting doesn't know who Herod was and what he was about.
2006-09-06 01:25:04 · answer #3 · answered by luvwinz 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Mary was directly descended from King David.
How much more prominent can you get?
This is documented in the Bible
Try reading it sometime.
Married to one of Herod's sons???
Can you document that he even had sons?
This is nonsense.
2006-09-06 01:29:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
Mary was from the line of David...read Lk1:26.
Justify your statements with references please?...otherwise..do not believe everything that the Da Vinci code tells you!!
2006-09-06 01:56:40 · answer #5 · answered by singirl 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes, she was from the royal family, but she didn't marry any one related to Harod, there are several references in many texts to this. She had to be in order to fulfill the prophocies of the comming of the Massiah. (Isaiah 11:1)
The only reference I can think of is the book
"Bloodline of the Holy Grail" by Laurence Gardner
http://www.amazon.ca/Bloodline-Holy-Grail-Lineage-Revealed/dp/1931412928
2006-09-06 01:28:29 · answer #6 · answered by Shazaaye Puebla 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Technically i assume that because of the fact beforehand of christianity, Judaism became into the only abrahamic faith and so it could have been so. God became into the jewish god, mary became into in actuality jewish and so became into joseph in accordance to the fables.
2016-10-14 09:19:39 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Bible itself says absolutely nothing about Mary's family history. In fact, it say very little about her at all. Most of what people believe about Mary is based upon later embellishment, speculation and outright fabrication.
2006-09-06 01:27:23 · answer #8 · answered by x 7 · 1⤊ 2⤋
interesting.
Not true of Jesus' mother Mary though.
She was in the line of David though and so was Joseph.
2006-09-06 01:23:59 · answer #9 · answered by rangedog 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Total garbage
2006-09-06 01:23:02 · answer #10 · answered by Villain 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋