2006-09-05 23:09:48 · 5 answers · asked by Anonymous in Education & Reference ➔ Other - Education
There is. John O Groats is 45 years behind the times and Landsend 50
2006-09-05 23:32:18 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Time differences only apply if theres a latitude distance not a longitude difference,daylight begins pretty much at the same time in each place as they are on similar longitudinal line.Even the canary islands have the same time as the UK and they are 2000 miles away.
2006-09-05 23:14:19 · answer #2 · answered by Alfred E. Newman 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
There used to be..... that was the problem. There used to be between London and Bristol. The reason time was standardized throughout the UK was the invention of the railways. The timetables were in such a mess.
2006-09-05 23:20:06 · answer #3 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
not at the moment.......but when England was discussing whether the clock should be changed in October or not,Scotland said no because the times that it gets dark here are much later.
2006-09-05 23:26:27 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
no and no
2006-09-05 23:15:54 · answer #5 · answered by Pope my ride! 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋