in John 3:16 "For God so loved the world that he gave his one and only Son, that whoever believes in him shall not perish but have eternal life. " Who added this verse in the bible? the whole christianity is based on a verse that it has been added by someone and it doesn't exist at all in the earliest scriptures of the bible? then why christians still believe in it?
2006-09-04 15:49:55 · 28 answers · asked by ahmedragab 2 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
I have the New International Version bible and that what it says in the foot notes. in the earliest scriptures John 3 end at verse 15 !!!!!
2006-09-04 16:04:04 · update #1
It seems to me that people misunderstood the expression "early scripts" I don't mean the old test. but I mean the oldest copies of the new test. that they found 150 years after Jesus (peace be upon him). Secondly everybody is asking me from where I got this information and I answered before "it's footnote in the New International Version of the bible" and it says that in the ealry script John 3 stop at verse 15. which means John 3:16 to 21 didn't exist before
2006-09-04 17:31:55 · update #2
John was written in the late part of the first century.
Please tell me what you know about 3:16 not being in it. As far as I know, it's always been a part of the book.
2006-09-04 15:52:02 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
No, I didn't know that, and I still don't. I do know that the oldest scriptures of the Bible is The Old Testament and, since Jesus hadn't been born/sent to earth at that time, of course the verse wasn't in it. However, the Old Testament IS full of scriptures that refer to Jesus, His birth, His reason for coming, His life, and His death.
Your assumption that "the whole Christianity is based on a verse that ...doesn't exist" shows your lack of knowledge of the scriptures. If you were knowledgeable of the scriptures you would know that Chrisianity is based on ALL the scriptures and that this particular verse is repeated in various words numerous times. As to your question who added it, it was added by St. John at the time he was documenting scripture which later was assembled with other's writting into the New Testament. St John wrote under the leading of God, so you might say that although John wrote it, it was actually restated or "added" again by God. Christians still believe it because the Holy Spirit has brought assurance to generation of Christians that it is true.
I wish you were sincerely interested in this, but I think it's only an uninformed attempt to discredit Christianity and to get an argument. As you may or may not know, Christianity is by faith, just as an atheist beleif is by faith. The main difference is of course, the Christian believes in Jesus and His promise of eternal life, (which by the way, if we are wrong we have lost nothing), while the atheist doesn't believe in God and has no hope of obtaining His peace and life eternal. Also, if the atheist is wrong, he'd better enjoy everything now, because he's in for a lot of torment later.
Now, I have a question for you: "Where did you get your information and why is it so important to attempt to prove the scriptures wrong?" It's not as if you are concerned for others well- being since there is no danger in having faith in Jesus. On the other hand, there may be (and I believe IS) serious danger in not believing in Him.
2006-09-04 17:21:36 · answer #2 · answered by Dan 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
This brings up a bigger issue. Bible footnotes or commentary are not always correct and can be misleading. The NIV is a good basic translation but not one of the most accurate. The Greek sources used for its translation are not ones considered to be more established as the ones used for say the New King James or New American Standard Bibles. It is interesting that that footnote puts a question to the teaching that God has a Son but in the O.T. as well as the rest of the N.T. it is repeated that God has a Son. Sounds to me that someone wanted to try to push their personal views there rather than what the consensus of what the ancient manuscripts state. So actualy John 3:16 does exist in old manuscripts just maybe not in the one The NIV translators used.
2006-09-07 04:59:26 · answer #3 · answered by Ernesto 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
What are you talking about? John 7:53 -- John 8:1-11 wasn't in the earliest transcripts. John 3:16 was always there.
Is this a test, or are you just misinformed?
Are you talking about the Old Testament?
May I suggest you look at a copy of the Bible - because ALL Bibles point out that the section of John I refered to wasn't there.
2006-09-04 15:55:45 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
I have the New International Version bible and that what it says in the foot notes. in the earliest scriptures John 3 end at verse 15 !!!!!
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Can't find that but this from NIV I found!
http://www.bible-researcher.com/niv.html
2006-09-04 18:35:27 · answer #5 · answered by Grandreal 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
It wouldn't matter much to me if it was in the earliest manuscripts or not, but it certainly would be interesting. After doing some checking, this verse is in the earliest and best manuscripts and there are no significant variants contained within the verse (areas where other copies of the text disagree with one another). The only variant in the verse is the addition of the possessive pronoun "his" in the phrase (his) one and only Son. The evidence to include or not include the pronoun is pretty inconclusive, but it looks like it wasn't original to the text. I would be interested to know your source for your assertion though - could you add that if you have it?
2006-09-04 16:36:24 · answer #6 · answered by Tukiki 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The passage of John 3:16 was written by John the Apostle somewhere between 40 and 90 AD.
The message of John 3:16 is first found in the genealogy of Adam to Noah found in Genesis 5. I will write the Hebrew names and their literal translations below.
Adam-Man
Seth-Appointed
Enosh-Mortal
Cainan-Sorrow
Mahalaleel-But the Living God
Jared-Shall Come Down
Enoch-Teaching
Methuselah-His Death Shall Bring
Lamech-Despairing
Noah-Comfort.
John 3:16 is the gospel in a sentence. So is this genealogy. "For man is appointed mortal sorrow, but the Living God shall come down teaching His death shall bring the despairing comfort."
2006-09-04 17:00:56 · answer #7 · answered by claypigeon 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋
First of all, the whole of Christianity is not based on this verse, it just happens to be one of the most famous, because it succinctly describes God's plan of salvation for mankind.
Second, that's an incredibly bold claim; I've heard many attacks on Christianity, and that one falls under the "the bigger the lie" category, at least in your hopes that it would get a reaction. Your statement has nothing to substantiate it in the whole of human history. Sounds like something one of your clerics told you to sound authoritative.
2006-09-04 16:00:10 · answer #8 · answered by You'll Never Outfox the Fox 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
your statement iws without factual base or merrit I have seen the old manuscripts, parchments and velums and it did indeed exhist and the Book of John was completed in the year 98C.E. and there is more eyewitness testimony as to its accuracy and authenticity than there is to your exhistence and none to your accuracy think about that and do please let us know where you derived your erroneous assumption from I have spent 35 yrs researching the Bible , History, archeology , Lexicography and related fields to fall for your fairy tale Gorbalizer
2006-09-04 16:04:25 · answer #9 · answered by gorbalizer 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, it does exist. You obviously know nothing about Christianity or the Bible. Stick to Islam. You should worry about trying to change the image that Christians have of Muslims, and not simply reinforcing the negative image that they have.
2006-09-04 16:00:20 · answer #10 · answered by Jeffrey S 6 · 0⤊ 1⤋
How do you know this and sorry to burst your bubble but that is not the only place in the bible that it is said. It appears in the bible many times.
2006-09-04 15:58:13 · answer #11 · answered by CHAEI 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋