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And why did you report this question last time I asked it?

2006-09-04 09:41:33 · 28 answers · asked by . 6 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

28 answers

OMFG WHY DO YOU CHRISTIANS NOT KNOW YOUR OWN BIBLE????

Matthew 15:22-26:
22A Canaanite woman from that vicinity came to him, crying out, "Lord, Son of David, have mercy on me! My daughter is suffering terribly from demon-possession."

23Jesus did not answer a word. So his disciples came to him and urged him, "Send her away, for she keeps crying out after us."

24He answered, "I was sent only to the lost sheep of Israel."

25The woman came and knelt before him. "Lord, help me!" she said.

26He replied, "It is not right to take the children's bread and toss it to their dogs."



And since Christians believe their "god" to be unchanging, Jesus still hates gentiles.

2006-09-04 09:51:11 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 2 1

All the spiritual masters point to the truth, but the language and concepts of their expression, is often coloured by their own cultural background. Jesus was a Jew, and though most of what he said was revolutionary for a Jew, some of it, like the prejudice against non-Jews, was just plain Jewish.

The masters are like signposts pointing towards truth. Don't get hung-up on the language on the signpost: instead, look to where it is pointing.

2006-09-04 10:16:57 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 1 0

In respectful disagreement with several answers to your question, I have to agree that yes, Jesus did refer to non-Jews as dogs. This occurs in Matthew 15:25-28. However, it is also clear from Scripture, such as Matthew 28:19, 20 (The Great Commission) that Jesus desired all to come to Him. His expression of love for all far outweighs the one passage, which in context was a test of one woman's faith.

EDIT: Yes, this story is retold in at least one other Gospel. But the idea remains the same. Jesus died for all, loved all.

2006-09-04 09:57:31 · answer #3 · answered by hisnamesaves 3 · 1 0

Although, I did not report you...as this is the first time I read this...Unclean, does not mean "dog". How you came to this definition, I don't know. However, since you give no reference for the ideas you are suggesting, I would have to say no, to your question.
While Jesus was often upset with the Jews, it had more to do with their refusal to acknowledge who He was, than with anything else.

2006-09-04 09:47:46 · answer #4 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

Jesus does not refer to non-Jews as dogs, it was a view point of the Jews on Samaritans that they were seen as being dogs. The reference Jesus is using that statement is to show that all are welcomed in the economy of God.

2006-09-04 09:46:04 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

But, in likening the non-Jews to “little dogs,” which might be kept in a home, and not to wild dogs of the street, Jesus softened the comparison. Nevertheless, what Jesus said apparently served to test the woman, he healed her daughter because of her faith.

God loves everyone, he hates the SIN.

And by the way, you dont seem to know your bible either, Jesus is Gods son, God and Jesus are two separate beings, see 1 Corinithians chapter 8 verse 6.

2006-09-04 10:02:58 · answer #6 · answered by Mark J 1 · 0 2

Mat 7:6 -
Give not that which is holy ... - By some the word “holy” has been supposed to mean “flesh offered in sacrifice,” made holy, or separated to a sacred use; but it probably means here “anything connected with religion” - admonition, precept, or doctrine. Pearls are precious stones found in shell-fish, chiefly in India, in the waters that surround Ceylon. They are used to denote anything especially precious, Rev_17:4; Rev_18:12-16; Mat_13:45. In this place they are used to denote the doctrines of the gospel. “Dogs” signify people who spurn, oppose, and abuse that doctrine; people of special sourness and malignity of temper, who meet it like growling and quarrelsome curs, Phi_3:2; 2Pe_2:22; Rev_22:15. “Swine” denote those who would trample the precepts underfoot; people of impurity of life; those who are corrupt, polluted, profane, obscene, and sensual; those who would not know the value of the gospel, and who would tread it down as swine would pearls, 2Pe_2:22; Pro_11:22. The meaning of this proverb, then, is, do not offer your doctrine to those violent and abusive people who would growl and curse you; nor to those especially debased and profligate who would not perceive its value, would trample it down, and would abuse you. This verse furnishes a beautiful instance of what has been called the “introverted parallelism.” The usual mode of poetry among the Hebrews, and a common mode of expression in proverbs and apothegms, was by the parallelism, where one member of a sentence answered to another, or expressed substantially the same sense with some addition or modification. See the Introduction to the Book of Job. Sometimes this was alternate, and sometimes it was introverted - where the first and fourth lines would correspond, and the second and third. This is the case here. The dogs would tear, and not the swine; the swine would trample the pearls under their feet, and not the dogs. It may be thus expressed:
Give not that which is holy unto the dogs,
Neither cast ye your pearls before swine,
Lest they (that is, the swine) trample them under their feet,
And turn again (that is, the dogs) and rend you.


Mat_15:26
But he answered and said, It is not meet ... - That is, it is not appropriate or proper.
Children’s bread - The Jews considered themselves as the special children of God.
To all other nations they were accustomed to apply terms of contempt, of which dogs was the most common. The Muslims still apply the term “dogs” to Christians, and Christians and Jews to each other. The term is designed as an expression of the highest contempt. The Saviour means to say that he was sent to the Jews. The woman was a Gentile. He meant merely using a term in common use, and designed to test her faith in the strongest manner - that it did not comport with the design of his personal ministry to apply benefits intended for the Jews to others. Evidently he cannot be understood as intending to justify or sanction the use of such terms, or calling names. He meant to try her faith. As if he had said, “You are a Gentile; I am a Jew. The Jews call themselves children of God. You they vilify and abuse, calling you a dog. Are you willing to receive of a Jew, then, a favor? Are you willing to submit to these appellations to receive a favor of one of that nation, and to acknowledge your dependence on a people that so despise you?” It was, therefore, a trial of her faith, and was not a lending of his sanction to the propriety of the abusive term. He regarded her with a different feeling.

2006-09-04 09:48:36 · answer #7 · answered by BrotherMichael 6 · 0 1

actually he does refer to the non-jews in the bible Mark 7:27 But Jesus said unto her, Let the children first be filled: for it is not meet to take the children's bread, and to cast [it] unto the dogs.

But Jesus was only doing this to test the womans faith, God never thought of gentiles as dogs. For God so loved THE WORLD,(not just the jews) he gave his only begotten

2006-09-04 09:48:16 · answer #8 · answered by holyghost130 3 · 0 1

you may desire to tutor references rather of your p.c.. of the verses. Jesus became chatting with the girl who became not needless to say a Jew and became a Canaanite. The Canaanites have been the enemy interior the previous testomony. This female had a secondary place in salvation history through fact Jesus became sent to the Jews First. JESUS became inspired with the help of her faith and granted her daughter's healing. Shalom

2016-11-24 21:34:30 · answer #9 · answered by bartelt 4 · 0 0

No, ever since the Holy Spirit was sent (after Jesus's ressurrection ands ascension), all the gentile nations now have access to the Father through Jesus Christ....read Acts for more info.

2006-09-04 09:46:10 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

JESUS never refers to non-Jews as dogs.

2006-09-04 09:45:24 · answer #11 · answered by Exodus 20:1-17 6 · 1 0

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