What's your take on the Apocrypha?
2006-09-04 07:40:18 · 12 answers · asked by Jack Meoff 4 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
that is the Catholic part.
2006-09-04 07:43:47 · answer #1 · answered by Noble Angel 6 · 2⤊ 0⤋
The Apocrypha is believed by many Biblical scholars to be non canonical. Some of the books were written around 300 AD and can't be proved as factual. Therefor not actually the Word of God. The non-Catholics :ie Protestants only put in the Bible that which is know to be scripturally accurate.
2006-09-04 07:54:35 · answer #2 · answered by celticwarrior7758 4 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The apocrypha is not accepted in the Christian canon and that is why many Bibles do not include it ,since so many feel the term "Bible" should only apply to the books accepted by the very early church as canon , or authorized scripture.I find the Apocrypha to be wonderful and educational and inspiring to read and very encouraging , even if the Christian church did not find it "provable "enough to be in the canon----
2006-09-04 07:47:26 · answer #3 · answered by holochost 1 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The Apocrypha is part of teh Bible that the Apostles used to teach the Gentiles. It is the parts of the Bible that were originally written in Greek.
When teh Jewish leaders put together their holy scripture, they rejected those books that were written in Greek because they were not written in Hebrew.
The Bible included the Apocrypha until Martin Luther removed them.
2006-09-04 07:48:48 · answer #4 · answered by Sldgman 7 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I don't see why the Apocrypha is considered less valid than the actual books of the Bible when it is impossible to verify the credentials of any of the people who wrote it in the first place.
2006-09-04 07:42:32 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
It is quite clear that those who would like to have these books considered Holy Canon do so because of their own traditions, and are not facing the facts objectively. Their beliefs are not supported by either the fundamental facts (which are self-evident in these writings), by what the Old Testament Saints themselves historically called scripture, nor by early New Testament Church History. If the Jewish Theologians of the Old Testament Congregation of God (Who of course were used of God to write that Old Testament) didn't have the Apocrypha books in their Old Testament text, why would any Christian Church growing from that very same Old Testament Hebrew Congregation, consider adding these Apocryphal books as part of the Old Testament Hebrew? It makes no sense. Nor is it's presence in copies of the Masoretic Text. Not only this, but Roman catholics attempt to add them as part of Old Testament Canon, in New Testament times, despite all available evidence that they were not inspired Hebrew text? To the objective student, it would seem to fly in the face of all logic and rational scholarship. If they were not God inspired writings to the very people of God's Israel that they were written to, then why would any Church growing from this very same Religion (on their own), consider adding them later?
The answer becomes obvious when we learn the traditions of the Roman Catholic Church which stand or fall by these Apocrypha writings alone. Their inclusion has nothing to do with historicity or truth, nor with evidence derived from higher learning or the careful study of the pertinent facts. It has everything to do with the will of men in justifying their 'Church traditions.' If they were God inspired text, they would have been among the Hebrew texts used by God's Chosen People.
2006-09-04 07:51:15 · answer #6 · answered by peaches 1 · 1⤊ 1⤋
They are generally in the middle.
The ones that have the books are catholic Bibles.
The Protestant Bibles do not.
They were judged not cannon when the 66 books were adopted as The Holy Bible in composite.
2006-09-04 07:45:02 · answer #7 · answered by chris p 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
After the Protestants broke away they took this out of the bible.
It actually goes inbetween the Old and New Testements for proper time frame.
2006-09-04 07:50:31 · answer #8 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋
Well Jack - with your knowledge and expertise and interest,
I would have thought you could answer that question.
My take is really whatever the reader receives from these books.
Hopefully it will be a positive experience for them.
2006-09-04 12:07:48 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Because there are two different versions. One that the Catholics use and one that the Protestants use. Which one is the "right" one?
2006-09-04 07:42:35 · answer #10 · answered by theblackenedphoenix 4 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Catholics have added several books that Protestantd dont have
2006-09-04 07:42:37 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 0⤋