2006-09-04 07:39:51 · 14 answers · asked by Michael B 1 in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
If a person divorces his wife/husband for any reason it is sin to God,and especially if they seek other relationships its adultery
2006-09-04 07:42:11 · answer #1 · answered by holyghost130 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
According to the Bible, yes. It's in Matthew 18, I believe.
Or at least sort of. It's actually the remarriage that would make you the adulterer, or the sexual activity after the divorce. If you remained celibate you'd be good. (as if)
I don't follow the Bible, though, but yes, according to the Bible if you get divorced and then get remarried or if you marry someone who was divorced you are an adulterer. That makes me an adulterer according to the Bible because my wife was married and divorced before we met. But then......I no longer follow the Bible either.
2006-09-04 14:45:37 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 0⤋
The bible says that the only good reason for divorce is if one of the partners has been unfaithful. I think that means that if your spouse was cheating on you with another person or decided that pornography or masturbation was more important than you. So if one of those was you reason, then no, but most anything else, than by the bible, yes.
2006-09-04 14:44:22 · answer #3 · answered by Kathykitty 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
the bible is a recreation of the original bible made. the new bible that we read now is only an adaption of the original bible created by a pagan leader. he wanted to unite his ppl with one religion so he fused 2 bibles. don't live ur life by the bible. just b a good person and u will go 2 heaven. if u need resources from the bible read romans: 22!
2006-09-04 14:50:16 · answer #4 · answered by Joe Kickgrass 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes, which makes it peculiar that there are so many divorced born-again Christians out there who go out of there way to condemn others.
Are we to follow strictly the teachings of The Bible?
Is it the literal word of God?
Or is it not to be read literally, but rather as a means to connect to the loving Father?
I choose the latter, but am always confused by the narrow-minded messages of my more conservative Christian brothers and sisters.
2006-09-04 14:47:15 · answer #5 · answered by Colin 5 · 0⤊ 1⤋
Yes
2006-09-04 15:12:55 · answer #6 · answered by SpiritRoaming 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Yes
2006-09-04 14:51:37 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
"However, I say to YOU that everyone divorcing his wife, except on account of fornication, makes her a subject for adultery, and whoever marries a divorced woman commits adultery." (Matthew 5:32,)
"8Â He said to them: “Moses, out of regard for YOUR hardheartedness, made the concession to YOU of divorcing YOUR wives, but such has not been the case from [the] beginning. I say to YOU that whoever divorces his wife, except on the ground of fornication, and marries another commits adultery.” (Matthew 19:8-9)
In the Christian congregation, therefore, aside from death, which automatically breaks the marriage tie, the only other way it may be broken is on the ground of “fornication,” which causes the offending one to become one flesh with an illicit partner.
2006-09-04 14:47:27 · answer #8 · answered by Jeremy Callahan 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Even if he divorces with a good reason. Especially if it is a SHE, not a he.
2006-09-04 14:43:26 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 1⤋
Only according to Christianity. Old testament rules are different.
2006-09-04 14:41:49 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 1⤋