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2006-09-04 02:04:09 · 11 answers · asked by arigont 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

11 answers

ramzise

2006-09-06 05:40:14 · answer #1 · answered by Mlsig 5 · 0 0

The ruler of Egypt in the time of the Prophet Musa (as) is referred to as "Pharaoh." This distinction in the Qur'an is not made in the Old and New Testaments nor by Jewish historians. In the Bible, the word "Pharaoh" is used, in every reference to an Egyptian monarch. On the other hand, the Qur'an is far more concise and accurate in the terminology it employs.

The use of the word "Pharaoh" in Egyptian history belongs only to the late period. This particular title began to be employed in the 14th century B.C., during the reign of Amenhotep IV. The Prophet Yusuf (as) lived at least 200 years before that time.216

The Encyclopaedia Britannica says that the word "Pharaoh" was a title of respect used from the New Kingdom (beginning with the 18th dynasty; B.C. 1539-1292) until the 22nd dynasty (B.C. 945-730), after which this term of address became the title of the king. Further information on this subject comes from the Academic American Encyclopaedia, which states that the title of Pharaoh began to be used in the New Kingdom.

In this way We give you news of what has gone before and We have given you a reminder direct from Us. Those who turn away from it will bear a heavy burden on the Day of Rising.
(Qur’an, 20: 99-100)

As we have seen, the use of the word "Pharaoh" dates from a specific period in history. For that reason, the fact that the Qur'an distinguishes between the different Egyptian titles in different Egyptian eras is yet another proof that the Qur'an is Allah's Word.

2006-09-04 02:14:11 · answer #2 · answered by DaNGeRouS MiNDz 2 · 0 1

**which pharoh enslaved the jews? ***

We can say a whole lot of probably, maybes and could have been. According to historical records that is an unverifiable story and can not be proved. So my answer is none.
That's just more stories.

2006-09-04 03:40:02 · answer #3 · answered by zurioluchi 7 · 1 0

The pharaohs named in the Bible are Shishak, So, Tirhakah, Nechoh, and Hophra, each of these being considered under separate articles in this work.

The first document in which the title is connected with the king’s personal name comes from the reign of Shishak, who ruled contemporaneously with Solomon and Rehoboam. In the Bible the title is similarly linked with the name in the cases of Pharaoh Nechoh (2 Kings 23:29) and Pharaoh Hophra (Jer. 44:30), of the late seventh and early sixth centuries B.C.E. By this time Egyptian documents were also inserting the title in the cartouches especially reserved for writing the royal name.

2006-09-04 03:19:31 · answer #4 · answered by Jeremy Callahan 4 · 0 1

That is a great question and the answer has never really been settled although popular culture seems to lean that they were under the rule of Se-ti when the massacre of the first born occurred and that they escaped during the time of Ram-see's rule. There is no definative proof that those facts are true.

btw - the were not "Jews" yet and were more likely identified as Hebrews because that was the language they spoke.

2006-09-04 02:12:35 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

In Exodus, it doesn't say directly, and I'm no historian, so take my comments with a grain of salt!

Basically, the Bible says that because the Jews were becoming more and more numerous in Egypt, the King of Egypt decided to do something about it....

From Exodus 1:
7. And the children of Israel were fruitful, and increased abundantly, and multiplied, and waxed exceeding mighty; and the land was filled with them.
8. Now there arose up a new king over Egypt, which knew not Joseph.
9. And he said unto his people, Behold, the people of the children of Israel are more and mightier than we:
10. Come on, let us deal wisely with them; lest they multiply, and it come to pass, that, when there falleth out any war, they join also unto our enemies, and fight against us, and so get them up out of the land.
11. Therefore they did set over them taskmasters to afflict them with their burdens. And they built for Pharaoh treasure cities, Pithom and Raamses.

I think it was a Pharoah's tradition to build a burial site for themselves and fill them with goodies, which would be with them in the afterlife. So if this Pharaoh was having Pithom and Raamses built, then perhaps he was Pithom or Raamses. I had always assumed that it was Raamses, but that's simply because I heard his name while watching "The 10 Commandments".

But really, this would have been the Pharoah in command when Moses came to be. The Hebrews could have been enslaved prior to Raamses rise to power. It could have been his father, grand father or great grand father. You get the point.

2006-09-04 02:14:00 · answer #6 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

The Pharoh of Egypt.

2006-09-04 02:06:28 · answer #7 · answered by Sam X9 5 · 0 2

Horemheb is possibly the Pharaoh that enslaved the Jews and Ramesses I may have been the Pharaoh at the time of the Exodus

2006-09-04 02:16:07 · answer #8 · answered by speechless 2 · 0 1

All reputable archeologists have reached the same conclusion: there is *no* evidence the jews were ever in Egypt. They were never there, and "exodus" is a fable.

2006-09-04 02:16:38 · answer #9 · answered by Anonymous · 1 1

sorry i dnt knw his name but i will ask , u reminded me to .
thanx .

2006-09-04 02:10:34 · answer #10 · answered by who k 3 · 0 2

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