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How can King David be singing of Babylon when the exile happened long after he was king? Was this added later to the collection of David's psalms?

2006-09-03 17:17:20 · 6 answers · asked by ilikeemd 2 in Society & Culture Religion & Spirituality

6 answers

The Bible is known for fulfilling its prophecies, and those strong in faith believe in them as truth:)

2006-09-03 17:19:54 · answer #1 · answered by malsvb6 3 · 1 1

King David was one of the greatest Prophets of the Old Testament, and his Psalms are full of prophecies. For example, some of the Psalms speak in great detail of Christ's crucifixion, which happened many hundred's of years later.

In speaking of Babylon, it may be that this was a prophecy of actual events to come later; but in addition to that, it may also mean more on a spiritual level - as many Biblical prophecies do, which have both an historical and a spiritual meaning to them. In the spiritual sence, the captivity in Babylon is captivity to sin and to idolatry (worshipping created things rather than the Creator). The latter condition certainly existed even in David's time.

So there are many levels to speak of in this and most of the Psalms, some of which were written by King David and others of which were written by others.

2006-09-04 00:38:13 · answer #2 · answered by LDRship 2 · 0 0

A plaintive song of the exile-of one who has recently returned from Babylon but in whose soul there lingers the bitter memory of the years in a foreign land and of the cruel events that led to that enforced stay. Here speaks the same deep love of Zion as that found in Psalm 42-43. The editors of the Psalter attached this song to the Great Hallel as a closing expression of supreme devotion to the city at the center of Israels worship of the Lord. The 12 poetic lines of the Hebrew song divide symmetrically into three stanzas of four lines each: the remembered sorrow and torment an oath of total commitment to Jerusalem, a call for retribution on Edom and Babylon.

2006-09-04 00:35:32 · answer #3 · answered by winnp1 3 · 0 0

Not all of the sayings in Psalms are attributed to David. Also, those that use "of David" as a header are not necessarily written by David, as that usage in Hebrew could also be used to indicate a dedication to David or David as the subject of the psalm.

Not to mention that many of the Psalms become obviously prophetic in light of the New Testament.

2006-09-04 00:23:17 · answer #4 · answered by marklin1972 2 · 1 2

One answer was it was King David's prophecy. The "new testament" answer above makes no sense. There is no new testament. this was the Bible. It has its own integrity. There's a guy named Bob down the street who wants to make a "even newer testament" by the way. Where does it end? It ends with the real people, with real prophecy, the original Bible. Beware of imitators and poor fakers.

2006-09-04 00:27:33 · answer #5 · answered by IKnowAll 3 · 0 2

Another argument for not taking the Bible literally.

2006-09-04 00:22:53 · answer #6 · answered by ? 6 · 0 2

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