2006-09-03 16:03:29 · 9 answers · asked by Verdi 1 in Politics & Government ➔ Law Enforcement & Police
possibly
2006-09-03 16:05:35 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 2⤋
Not exclusively. Not even primarily. The church had its own courts.
Common law grew out of the local baronial courts, and the chancery courts, which were primarily concerned with property law, citizenship rights, and with some of the requirements based on the Magna Carta.
About the only overlap with Biblical law was the laws for perjury ("bearing false witness"), and murder which has been unlawful under every legal system since the dawn of civilization.
2006-09-03 16:05:22 · answer #2 · answered by coragryph 7 · 2⤊ 0⤋
it was definately influenced.
Common law had always been influenced by ecclestial law.
but over time, the judges ruled on what the judiciary personally thought to be correct. Especially when england seperated from the roman catholics.
2006-09-03 16:11:58 · answer #3 · answered by rimrocka 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
there was law before the Bible, before written word even
common law, all law, was inspired by the desire to live together and work together in a society
2006-09-03 16:05:52 · answer #4 · answered by anonacoup 7 · 0⤊ 1⤋
The primary influence was tribal custom of the Britons & Anglo Saxons.
2006-09-03 19:09:00 · answer #5 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Maybe it should be called "Common Sense Law".
2006-09-03 16:11:18 · answer #6 · answered by Answers 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
In part, Commom law came from many sourses
2006-09-04 04:15:36 · answer #7 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
Probably
2006-09-07 13:42:49 · answer #8 · answered by spiritcavegrl 7 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Nope. the Church had its own courts. I cant remember the name. do
2006-09-03 16:11:11 · answer #9 · answered by lol 2 · 0⤊ 0⤋