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Germany took over Czeckslovakia and Poland because they were at one time part of germany.....they did not make any moves toward England or france until after they declared war on Germany...my question is do you think Germany would have occupied france and germany if they did not declare war or move against germany?

2006-09-03 13:18:56 · 19 answers · asked by Darkness 5 in Politics & Government Military

Yes I noticed I made a typo, I meant to say "would they have occupied/attacked France or *England! Not germany

2006-09-03 13:23:34 · update #1

19 answers

Yes, Hitler was a madman who wanted to rule the world.

2006-09-03 13:23:52 · answer #1 · answered by M 1 · 0 0

What if? is a question that people often wonder about with world history. I have two books about that called "What If?". "What If " and "What If 2" are both written by Robert Cowley. But there are other books that examine the same questions. Germany did occupy France for reasons you have stated for Czechoslovakia and Poland.

Roberts, Andrew. "Hitler's England: What if Germany had invaded Britain in May 1940?"
Divergence: 1940 CE
Summary: Discusses the reasons why a British invasion did not occur, but then looks into what might have happened if Germany had been prepared to invade in the late spring of 1940. Topics include the susceptibility of the British populace to collaboration, who would have headed a puppet government, the likelihood of counter-invasion, etc.

Published: In Virtual History: Alternatives and Counterfactuals (ed. Niall Ferguson), q.v.

2006-09-03 13:41:49 · answer #2 · answered by David Y 4 · 0 0

Absolutely, he would have attacked France. He wanted retribution from WWI. Remember when he blew up the RR car that was used to sign Germany's surrender of WWI. Hitler carried that vendetta for a very long time.

The same for Great Britain, it was Germany's enemy from WWI, and here to, he wanted vengeance.

Hitler would have invaded any country that even tried to stay neutral. The Republic if Ireland was neutral, and the Nazi's were in and out of there often. Naturally the Irish were not particularly good friends with the Brits, so they were known to help the Nazi's on occasion.

2006-09-03 13:52:53 · answer #3 · answered by briang731/ bvincent 6 · 0 0

If Britain and France had not declared war, Hitler would've probably done one of two things.

1. Attacked the Soviet Union. If he does this, Britian and France might actually ally (or at least, not interfere) with him. The West hated Communism more than they did Nazism/Fascism.

2. Attacked France anyway to prevent them from stabbing Germany in the back as it fought the Soviets.

2006-09-03 13:35:19 · answer #4 · answered by usarocketman 3 · 0 0

Hitler had real scores to settle with France. France occupied territory belonging to germany and was one of the main pursuers of reparations follwing WW I. So yes Hitler would have invaded France anyway. England? Im not so sure. hitler felt it would be possible to reach peace with England. He felt the English were similar to Germany and probably would have concluded some sort of peace with them. Would it have lasted or held up? Difficult to say. Germany would have found itself between Italy (Who wanted british possessions) and England who wouldnt want to give them up. It might have been possible for a temporary peace but my feeling is that in the End England would have been targeted anyway.

2006-09-03 14:33:44 · answer #5 · answered by Kevin P 3 · 0 0

Britain and France might come to Poland's help if attacked by a distant places ability. the two Germany and the Soviet Union invaded Poland. Britain and France purely declared conflict on Germany. the top? contained in the treaty the term "distant places ability" became unofficially meant to be in connection with Germany. that's because of the fact Britain and France feared a sturdy Germany. and that they made the 1st circulate by asserting conflict on Germany first, hence Britain and France started international conflict II. Germany and the Soviet Union invading Poland does no longer characterize international conflict II, incredibly if no different international locations have been given in contact. international conflict II became technically started by Britain and France asserting conflict on Germany - as a effect forming an Allied area and an Axis area. background books besides the indisputable fact that choose for to assert WWII became started by Germany invading Poland (coincidentally ignoring the actuality that the Soviet Union had invaded Poland on the comparable time too), because of the fact to assert otherwize might supply the British and the French a bad attractiveness (that's contradictory to victor's justice). you are able to argue that Germany provoked Britain and France into commencing a conflict, merely like how the united states provoked Japan into commencing a conflict. Germany and the united states used provocative distant places and commerce policies, besides the indisputable fact that it became Britain, France and Japan who made the 1st strike.

2016-09-30 07:45:59 · answer #6 · answered by vishvanath 4 · 0 0

Actually, only PART of Poland and Czechoslovakia were ever part of Germany. He used it as a pretext to take the whole thing. Prior to taking France, Hitler took over Netherlands and Belgium...2 countries that were NEVER part of Germany in any way.

2006-09-03 13:23:41 · answer #7 · answered by Brand X 6 · 0 0

Probably not as quickly as he did. He had unfinished ideas in Eastern Europe that would have come first. He almost certainly woould have invaded France. Perhaps not England. The Brits were a tougher nut to crack. Hitler never did have experience or equipment for amphibious landings.

2006-09-03 13:24:57 · answer #8 · answered by bigjohn B 7 · 0 0

You are correct that German only attcaked Britain after they declared war on Germany, however greater Poland was never part of Germany, remember that it was after the Congress of Vienna that Germany as we sort of know it now came into existance. It's a relatively "new" country.

2006-09-03 14:00:30 · answer #9 · answered by R A M 1 · 0 0

i think that hitler would have invaded france anyway because he was always scared of a war on a second front but at the same time he always wanted britain to join his campaign against the russians in the east, i suppose he had no choice but to invade since they would forever constitute a threat, and in the end becuase he actually did nt invade britain he ended up with a second front in Europe, not that he wasnt screwed with the russians already

2006-09-03 13:27:18 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 0 0

The Germans did invade half of France and they had to rely on the Allies to free them from what I remember of history. But yes Hitler was invading Western Europe.

2006-09-03 13:21:41 · answer #11 · answered by Egroeg_Rorepme 4 · 0 0

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