While they are based on the same language, South American Spanish developed differently from European Spanish due to its absorbtion of native South American phrases and words.
A speaker of one should have no problem understanding the other language but may have problems with certain terms
2006-09-02 22:20:45
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answer #1
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answered by Anonymous
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Any person who has some education in schooling will study Castillian Sp. even though their own family or community may speak a dialect.
Some pronunciations have been influenced by past rulers or occupations.
In Spain, Madrid is often pronunced, "Madrith". This came about from one King who spoke with a lisp. The population used that pronunciation so as not to offend the King. Some Spaniards still use it.
Education in languages must follow a standard which will be so called "pure" language.
Italians study "Tuscan", or Tuscano, but the dialect of the family will also be spoken.
This is true even in the US. We all study correct English but there is a common "street" language everywhere, although Americans rarely call it dialect.
We know that even Britain experiences dialects.
2006-09-02 22:30:58
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answer #2
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answered by ed 7
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Oh yeah. Not to the point where one would have a problem understanding some one from another Spanish speaking country but, for example in Puerto Rico (where I lived for 5 years) they have words that are totally different from the same words used in say...Mexico(where my family is from). Also another example would be that in Spain, Mexico,Puerto Rico (the list goes on) they have different dialects and accents in the same country just as some one from New York and a Native Georgian have different ways of speaking. When I made my first trip to Spain ( I was 14) I thought "Man everyone seems to have a lisp," then I realized. Oh it's just the way people enunciate things in Seville. The word Zafacon in Puerto Rico can be used for "trash can" and you would be understood. It all has to do with the History and Geographical location of a Latin country.
2006-09-02 22:35:55
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answer #3
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answered by I_love_my_soldier 2
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Yes. Next time you're at a library or book shop, look in the forward to the University of Chicago Spanish - English Dictionary. There's a very good little article explaining the different dialects.
2006-09-06 16:26:49
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answer #4
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answered by Anonymous
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like someone explained before, they're not different, there are just some words that are different. i think its in puerto rico, dominican republic or costa rica where they call a notebook a "mascota" and in other countries a mascota is a pet. i know a guy who called his notebook a mascota in school and everyone looked at him weird and they laughed and said what the hell are you talking about? you brought a dog to school or something? since then they called him "mascota." the accent is very different.
also like someone said before, in spain they pronounce the "s" (sometimes the c also) and "z" as a "th" where everywhere else all these (and sometimes the c) are pronounced as an "s."
in argentina the "Y" is pronounced as a "sh" everywhere else its prononced with a sound similar to the "ch" in english (for example the word yo (meaning "I" in english) its pronounced "sho" in argentina, everywhere else is pronounced similar to "cho" (but try not to make the "sh" sound while saying it, its not the same as "yo" in english, its a mix between the yo and the cho pronounced in english without the sh sound). most say this is due to the italian backround.
some people say that the spanish most perfect is the colombian spanish but its also pretty different from the one in spain.
just for some extra info, in brasil they speak portuguese not spanish.
if what you want to know and what you mean by "different" is that we cant understand each other, we can, its like english from england and english from the US.
at first the spanish we spoke in latin america was called simply spanish, then they changed it to "castillian" becaus eit was different from the spanish in the whole country and they found that our spanish was more similar to the one they spoke in "castilla" (i think thats what its called) so they said we spoke castillian, but nowadays its a fact that we speak spanish, not "castillian". its like the english saying americans dont speak english they speak "londonian" because the english americans speak is more similar to the dialect and accent used in london. it wouldnt make much sense, since "londonian" is not a language, so now we're back to the fact that we speak spanish not "castillian."
2006-09-02 22:38:24
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answer #5
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answered by jextreme_22 2
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Yes, the dialects, accents and some pronunciation are quite different. For instance, in Spain, the "c" and "z" are pronounced with a "th" sound instead of the "s" in Latin America. The "b" and the "v" sounds are interchangeable, and the list of differences go on....
2006-09-02 22:22:18
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answer #6
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answered by SedaCanela 3
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Yes but they all have their form of dialects in speaking it . Some use words differently than others or have a different meaning when spoken.
2006-09-03 05:14:33
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answer #7
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answered by Ruby 2
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Yes, the only thing that differs are the accents. Sometimes some words mean something in one country but mean something else or doesn't mean anything at all in another country.
2006-09-02 23:26:31
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answer #8
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answered by john 6
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Yes,in some words,puedes decir tomar o coger en espanol de espana,pero en mexico COGER es una mala palabra
2006-09-03 01:49:41
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answer #9
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answered by Anonymous
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Only a little bit coz' other words come from different languages.
2006-09-02 22:27:16
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answer #10
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answered by Anonymous
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