2006-09-02 10:20:14 · 35 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Wrong. Unless you're suggesting that God could insert proof of itself into the thought patterns and neural pathways of every living being... but then again, that shoots free will right between the eyes, doesn't it?
2006-09-02 10:22:46 · answer #1 · answered by Anonymous · 1⤊ 2⤋
But you're asking as if everybody believes in the same God. Christians are told that God is omnipresent, but there are three of them. Hindus have very many Gods. Are theirs omnipresent too ? I being 100% non-religious see no sign of anyones God anywhere.
It seems that the more the religious people try to convince us to believe their superstitions, the more convinced we are that it's a beautiful, well organized snow job.
2006-09-02 11:04:25 · answer #2 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋
God is not Omnipresent. By accounts in the Old Testement
Omnipotent
Omniscient
Omnibenevolent.
Omnipotence gives him the ability to be Omnipresent but he has at this time not been so. If God were truely Omnipresent it would not be possible for us to be unaware of him as he could not exist outside of our perception.
2006-09-02 10:30:15 · answer #3 · answered by W0LF 5 · 0⤊ 0⤋
Fallacy:
"Denying the antecedent"
Denying the antecedent (also known as vacuous implication) is a type of logical fallacy.
Suppose in an argument one were to deny the "if" part of a conditional (the antecedent) first, and conclude with the denial of "then" part (the consequent).
If P, then Q.
P is false.
Therefore, Q is false.
This argument form has the name denying the antecedent, because in arguing this way one does indeed deny the antecedent in the second premise. This is a non sequitur (irrelevant conclusion). If we argue this way, we make a mistake. One can see this with an example:
If I'm asleep, my eyes are closed.
I'm not asleep.
Therefore, my eyes are not closed.
Clearly, the fact that my eyes are closed when I sleep does not exclude the possibility that I might close my eyes while being fully awake.
When embedded in a more complicated argument, an invalid inference of this kind may be convincing because of confusion between the meanings of if and if and only if. Denying the antecedent is valid if the first premise asserts "if and only if" rather than "if", such that I not only always close my eyes when I'm asleep, but I also only close my eyes when I'm asleep (not when I'm awake)."
---From Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia
Omnipresent means God is present everywhere, which He is. Even in the hearts of Atheists. But we have the free will to choose belief and obedience or not.
2006-09-02 10:40:44 · answer #4 · answered by Crystal Violet 6 · 1⤊ 1⤋
Even if the evidence is put there in front of a person still they will want to question it. It’s like saying if the devil was present will people stop committing sins? No because people will be used to seeing/hearing the devil persuading them to do wrong thing’s. And it will just be the same as not hearing him or seeing. Just imagine you are very hungry and I start talking about food on a text message you will becoming hungrier wouldn’t you? And what if I came to you and started waving a chocolate bar wouldn’t you become hungrier? With the text message you will read the food items listed and you will visualize it in you mind but then again you can stop you self from imagining the chocolate bar because you have control of what you imagine. Nevertheless when I wave a chocolate bar in front of your face you will still imagine in your mind what the chocolate taste’s like. So even if I make you hungrier by naming food items or show you a food item you will still try to imagine the product in you mind.
So the Atheist will still question the existence of God because they could be jealous (because He is very powerful), persuaded by the devil etc.
"Allah is not every where"
brother i suggest you vissit www.yanabi.com so that you can go to sleep tonigh. Go to the website register and then make a new forum post and ask you question.
2006-09-02 10:34:46 · answer #5 · answered by Farhan 3 · 0⤊ 1⤋
God is omnipresent right.
Atheists like all created creatures are given freewill to have complete authentic True Love.
Even though the creatures. whether Lucifer (Fallen Angel), Adam and Eve or current humans reject God, He is still silently present waiting for that free will love to return.
It is a attribute of authentic love...self sacrifice, submission, and altruism.
2006-09-02 10:28:33 · answer #6 · answered by Lives7 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
No; the fact that God is present everywhere ("omnipresent") doesn't influence whether a person believes in Him or not. Belief comes from the individual.
2006-09-02 10:22:52 · answer #7 · answered by ensign183 5 · 3⤊ 1⤋
God is omnipresent, but we are given the choice to choose. he knew you were going to write this before you did it, and he knows the doubts of your heart. he loves you and is calling to you, you should answer the call. you will see the world in a new way
2006-09-02 10:24:04 · answer #8 · answered by onefatwhiteguy 2 · 1⤊ 1⤋
I would not put God in a box as we are not omnipresent.
2006-09-02 10:22:56 · answer #9 · answered by Don R 2 · 3⤊ 0⤋
No, "omnipresent" means "present everywhere." What's that got to do with whether or not their are atheists? Really should check the dictionary before you ask such questions.
2006-09-02 10:23:17 · answer #10 · answered by Anonymous · 2⤊ 1⤋
What exactly is the defination of omnipresent?
2006-09-02 10:24:11 · answer #11 · answered by Anonymous · 0⤊ 0⤋