why do they call it French Fries?

Answer 1

The logical explanation of the origin of the North American name of the dish is that it derives from potatoes that have been "fried in the French manner". The English verb fry is ambiguous: it can refer to both to sautéing and to deep-fat frying, while the French pommes frites or patates frites ("fried potatoes") refers unambiguously to deep frying. Thomas Jefferson, famous for including (then relativly unknown in America) European, especially French cuisine in his writings and recipes, referred to fried potatoes in this same manner.

It is sometimes speculated that the word "french" in "french fries" refers to the verb "to french", which means "to cut in thin lengthwise strips before cooking" (Merriam-Webster's Collegiate Dictionary, Tenth Ed.) On the other hand, "to french" is defined as "to prepare, as a chop, by partially cutting the meat from the shank and leaving bare the bone so as to fit it for convenient handling" (Oxford English Dictionary) in other dictionaries, seeming to suggest that the meaning of this process is not necessarily as set as it may appear. In addition, the verb "to french" did not start appearing until after "french fried potatoes" had appeared in the English-speaking world.

Answer 2

Because the original name is "pomme-de-terre fritz" (apple of the earth - or potato - fried, in French). It's easier to just say French Fries.
We just call them fries.

Answer 3

A speculative theory is that the word "French" in "French fries" may refer to potatoes which are French-cut (julienned), with a later derived verb from this term, "to french," which means "to cut in thin lengthwise strips before cooking.

Answer 4

Cause the french invented them?

Answer 5

co's its french kiss

Answer 6

they came from france ???