2006-09-01 16:27:19 · 18 answers · asked by Anonymous in Society & Culture ➔ Religion & Spirituality
Yes there have been 3 major Muslim Empires.
Umayyad 661-750
Spread empire to Persia, Iraq, Arabia, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, Morocco, and Spain by 711
Abbasid 750-1248
maintained the empire
Ottoman1453-1921
most of the land that has been the Byzantine Empire
Serbia, Macedonia, Bulgaria, Montenegro, Bosnia, Croatia, Slovenia
1389 in Kosovo defeated Serbian Army
extended rule to Greece and Eastern Europe
placed taxation on the Greek Isles
1525 conquered Buda and Pest
territory in Asia, Africa and Europe
most of Iraq, Arabia, Egypt to Algeria
1526 battle of Mochas opens the Hungarian Plain to the Ottoman army and Danube River
Extended power into the Coast of Arabia, Iraq to the Persian Gulf, and Red sea, Egypt to Algeria
Iraq west of Mosul
influence extended to India
1590 favorable treaty with Iran
-left Tabriz to the Ottomans
1603-1618 Shah Abbas I began war
-recaptured Tabriz, much of the Caucasus and Kar
1638 seized Erivan and recaptured Baghdad
1663 lead forces to Belgrade and beyond
-captured Crete
2006-09-01 16:34:00 · answer #1 · answered by Layla 6 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was not the Persian Empire but yes, Islamic armies conquered the middle east and took Jerusalem from the Jews and Christians. Islam overtook Spain and penetrated into France before they were finally stopped. Much of Spain was controlled by Islam until the last of the Muslims were run out of Spain in 1492 ( yes, right before Columbus sailed for America.)
2006-09-01 23:32:14 · answer #2 · answered by plane williams 3 · 1⤊ 0⤋
They did have a large empire which spanned a large part of the "known" globe of the time. It included Spain, in fact, where they were known as the "Moors."
2006-09-01 23:31:01 · answer #3 · answered by Kentucky_Hillbilly 2 · 1⤊ 0⤋
Yes. So did Britain and Alexander the Great. Islam still has a huge empire, is that not obvious?
2006-09-01 23:31:14 · answer #4 · answered by reverenceofme 6 · 0⤊ 0⤋
The Persian Empire was not Islamic -- it predates Islam by 1,000 years (c. 550 BCE). Islam was once spread through northern Africa up to Spain, and on the east front, through what was then called Persia (present day Iran), to India and southeast Asia.
2006-09-01 23:31:20 · answer #5 · answered by daryavaush 5 · 1⤊ 0⤋
It was expansive. From the Philippines, to Spain and west Africa. At that time though, Islam actually encouraged learning and thought, built many libraries.
2006-09-01 23:30:58 · answer #6 · answered by amish-robot 4 · 2⤊ 0⤋
Yes sir! From Phillipines and China in the east to Spain and West Africa in the west.
2006-09-01 23:36:53 · answer #7 · answered by baby.hooligan 3 · 0⤊ 0⤋
yes it is true. At that time, the Muslims were not divided n knew and understood the Quran. Not like the rulers of today who just take it up for either politics or for satisfying their murderous desires...............
it wasn't spread by sword if that is what u r thinking. If u want more info I'd be glad to help. it is private_family@hotmail.com
2006-09-01 23:42:36 · answer #8 · answered by Knowledge Seeker 4 · 1⤊ 1⤋
No, it was the Turks (Ottoman Empire), who happened to be Muslim. Religion is not a political entity. Even the Catholic Church ruled through proxy kings.
2006-09-01 23:29:55 · answer #9 · answered by normobrian 6 · 2⤊ 1⤋
Yeh.They even conquered parts of Europe.Spain was totally under their control.
2006-09-02 08:25:22 · answer #10 · answered by lil_angel 4 · 0⤊ 0⤋